Week 7 (Liver & Spleen/Wound Healing & Hernia)

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1-99 liver/spleen,

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1
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What are the lobes of the liver?

- Left lateral (very large)

- Left medial

- Quadrate

- Right medial

- Right lateral

- Caudate (caudate process and papillary process which extends to the left side)

2
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What are the ligaments of the liver?

- Coronary ligament

- Triangular ligaments (two right, one left)

- Hepatorenal ligament (liver to right kidney; minimizes visualization of right adrenal gland)

- Hepatogastric ligament (Delineates pylorus or very close to pylorus)

- Hepatoduodenal ligament

3
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Where is the gall bladder located?

- Between right medial and quadrate

4
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The hepatogastric ligament can be a useful landmark for what?

- Delineating the pylorus; useful for gastropexy

5
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It is more difficult to perform a lobectomy on which side of the liver?

- Right

6
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Describe the blood supply to the liver.

- Hepatic artery: 20% blood volume; 50% oxygenated blood

- Portal vein: 80% blood volume, 50% oxygenated blood

7
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The hepatic artery is a branch of what?

- Celiac artery

8
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What vessels drain into the portal vein?

- Caudal mesenteric vein

- Cranial mesenteric vein

- Splenic vein

- Gastroduodenal vein

9
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The portal vein branches how in the liver in the dog?

- Right → right lateral and caudate

- Left → Central (right medial and caudate), left lateral, left medial, and quadrate

10
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The portal vein branches how in the liver in the cat?

- Right

- Central

- Left

11
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Describe the drainage of the liver vasculature.

- 6-8 hepatic veins drain into the CaVC

12
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Describe the flow of bile.

Canaliculi → interlobular ducts → lobar ducts → hepatic ducts, exit liver parenchyma → common bile duct (Cystic duct to gallbladder)

13
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Describe the common bile duct in the dog vs. cat.

- Dogs: Enters duodenum adjacent to the pancreatic duct at the major duodenal papilla

- Cats: Pancreatic duct joins the common bile duct and enters duodenum at major duodenal papilla (Only 20% have an accessory pancreatic duct)

<p>- Dogs: Enters duodenum adjacent to the pancreatic duct at the major duodenal papilla</p><p>- Cats: Pancreatic duct joins the common bile duct and enters duodenum at major duodenal papilla (Only 20% have an accessory pancreatic duct)</p>
14
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What are some physiologic roles of the liver?

- Protein metabolism

- CHO metabolism

- Coagulation factor synthesis (all except VIII and vWf)

15
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What are the vitamin K dependent clotting factors?

- II, VII, IX, X, protein C, protein S

16
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What is the use of radiographs in liver assessment?

- Provide little specific information

- Can visualize choleliths which are 50% opaque in dogs and 80% opaque in cats

17
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What is the appropriate diameter of the common bile duct on US?

- 3 to 4 mm

18
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How can CT be used to evaluate the liver?

- CT angiography (arterial phase, portal phase, venous phase)

19
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What are some pre-operative considerations for liver surgery?

- Hemorrhage (57% reported coagulopathies with liver disease, Blood typing, cross match, blood products)

- Hypoglycemia (Liver dysfunction, PSS and severe hepatopathy)

- Anesthesia (hepatic metabolism)

- Bacteria (Intestinal bacteria and endotoxin exposure; Broad spectrum ABX appropriate)

20
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Biopsies are best taken on the ____________ surface of the liver.

- Diaphragmatic

21
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What are options for liver biopsies?

- Guillotine

- Laparoscopic

- Punch

- Percutaneous Needle Core (US guided, difficult)

22
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How is a guillotine liver biopsy performed? What lesions is it best for?

- Crush a region and place a suture around it (monofilament, PDS)

- Best for peripheral or generalized lesions

<p>- Crush a region and place a suture around it (monofilament, PDS)</p><p>- Best for peripheral or generalized lesions</p>
23
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How is a laparoscopic liver biopsy performed?

- With 5 mm cup forceps and loop ligatures

<p>- With 5 mm cup forceps and loop ligatures</p>
24
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What lesions are punch liver biopsies best for?

- Non-peripheral and targeted lesions

25
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How is a partial liver lobectomy performed? Complete?

- Liver capsule transected, blunt dissection to ID large vessels

- Stapling devices

- Vessel sealant devices

Complete:

  • stapling devices

  • blunt dissection and suture ligation

<p>- Liver capsule transected, blunt dissection to ID large vessels</p><p>- Stapling devices</p><p>- Vessel sealant devices</p><p></p><p>Complete:</p><ul><li><p>stapling devices</p></li><li><p>blunt dissection and suture ligation</p></li></ul><p></p>
26
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Dogs can tolerate __________ acute liver removal.

- 70%

27
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What amount of liver volume do the liver lobes constitute?

- Right lateral and caudate: 28%

- Right medial and quadrate: 28%

- Left lateral and medial: 44%

28
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What are some causes of extrahepatic biliary obstruction common in cats?

- Complex inflammatory conditions (triaditis - pancreatitis, cholangitis, CIE)

- +/- neoplasia

29
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What are some causes of extrahepatic biliary obstruction common in dogs?

- Pancreatitis

- Neoplasia

- Gall bladder mucoceles

- Cholangitis

- Cholelithiasis

30
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How are cholecystectomies performed?

- Ensure patency of CBD (bile needs to be able to get from liver to intestines)

- Dissect free from fossa

- Double ligate cystic duct

- Ligate cystic artery

31
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How is the patency of the CBD assessed/maintained?

- Choledochal catheterization and stenting

- Catheterization can be normograde or retrograde (Incision into duodenum and threading through major duodenal papilla) and followed with flushing

- Stenting involves placing a red rubber in the CBD which is sutured to the duodenum aborally to the major duodenal papilla (the animal will poop it out with time)

<p>- Choledochal catheterization and stenting</p><p>- Catheterization can be normograde or retrograde (Incision into duodenum and threading through major duodenal papilla) and followed with flushing</p><p>- Stenting involves placing a red rubber in the CBD which is sutured to the duodenum aborally to the major duodenal papilla (the animal will poop it out with time)</p>
32
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What is a cholecystoenterostomy?

- Anastomosis of gall bladder to intestine to reroute biliary system, either to duodenum (preferred; Cholecystoduodenostomy) or jejunum (Cholecystojejunostomy)

<p>- Anastomosis of gall bladder to intestine to reroute biliary system, either to duodenum (preferred; Cholecystoduodenostomy) or jejunum (Cholecystojejunostomy)</p>
33
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When performing a cholecystoenterostomy, a _________ is created as long as possible to avoid strictures.

- Stoma (2.5 cm)

<p>- Stoma (2.5 cm)</p>
34
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What are complications of a cholecystoenterostomy?

- Dehiscence (septic bile peritonitis; mortality 75%)

- Stricture

- Ascending infection

- Ulceration

35
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What are indications for a choledochotomy?

- Choleliths obstructing the CBD

- Ideally this procedure is avoided

36
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What is a cholecystotomy tube?

- Temporary method to drain bile

- If this is needed, often just aspirate bile rather than doing this, but it can be performed (open or laparoscopic)

37
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What is a gall bladder mucocele?

- Cystic mucosal hyperplasia resulting in hypersecretion of mucus and thick, gelatinous bile within the gall bladder which is generally sterile

- This can lead to obstruction and rupture

<p>- Cystic mucosal hyperplasia resulting in hypersecretion of mucus and thick, gelatinous bile within the gall bladder which is generally sterile</p><p>- This can lead to obstruction and rupture</p>
38
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What animals are predisposed to gall bladder mucocele?

- Shetland Sheepdogs

- Dogs with HYPERadrenocorticism and HYPOthyroidism

<p>- Shetland Sheepdogs</p><p>- Dogs with HYPERadrenocorticism and HYPOthyroidism</p>
39
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How are gall bladder mucoceles diagnosed?

- Clinicopathologic abnormalities: Elevated bili, ALP, ALT, and AST

- US: Non-dependent echogenic material in a stellate pattern (looks like a kiwi)

<p>- Clinicopathologic abnormalities: Elevated bili, ALP, ALT, and AST</p><p>- US: Non-dependent echogenic material in a stellate pattern (looks like a kiwi)</p>
40
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How are gall bladder mucoceles managed?

- Medical management for early cases

- Surgical management with cholecystectomy (ensure CBD patency)

41
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What is the prognosis for gall bladder mucoceles managed surgically?

- Better prognosis if not obstructed or showing clinical signs (i.e. "elective" type cases which involve normal bilirubin, have no obstruction or ductal distention, but have a mucocele -> mortality <5%)

42
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True or false: Cholelithiasis is common

- False; Infrequent cause of clinically significant disease

43
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What types of choleliths are more common in dogs?

- Pigment stones - calcium bilirubinate

44
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What is the most common hepatobiliary neoplasia?

- Hepatocellular carcinoma

45
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Describe the typical structure and biologic behavior of hepatocellular carcinomas.

- Massive (one large one - best), nodular (multiple nodules) or diffuse

- Metastases in local LN, lung, peritoneum

46
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What is the treatment of choice for massive hepatocellular carcinomas? What is the MST?

- Surgical resection

- MST 1460 days (4 years) with clean margins

47
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What are cholangiocellular neoplasias?

- Benign adenomas

- Malignant carcinomas

48
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Describe the typical biologic behavior and structure of cholangiocellular carcinomas.

- Massive, nodular, diffuse

- Cats - Bile duct tumors 2x common as primary hepatic neoplasms

- Biliary cystadenomas 2x as common as bile duct carcinomas

49
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What is the prognosis for malignant biliary tumors in cats?

- Poor

50
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Describe hepatobiliary neuroendocrine tumors.

- Rare, usually diffuse

- Metastases in 90% of cases

- Poor prognosis

51
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Describe hepatobiliary mesenchyma tumors.

- Common

- Often metastatic (HSA common)

- Prognosis generally guarded due to frequent metastases

52
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What are some other potential metastatic neoplasms of the liver?

- MCT

- Histiocytic sarcoma

- Myelolipoma

53
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True or false: Metastatic hepatic tumors are more common than primary hepatic tumors

- True

metastatic hepatic » primary hepatic tumor

54
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Before performing a cholecystectomy, what must you ensure?

- Patent CBD, there must be a way for bile to get from liver to intestines - choledochal catheterization

55
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What are the types of portosystemic shunts?

- Congenital: Direct communication with the portal venous system and systemic circulation (bypasses liver) which are commonly single and can be intra- or extrahepatic

- Acquired: Secondary to chronic portal hypertension which are more commonly multiple, torturous and extrahepatic

<p>- Congenital: Direct communication with the portal venous system and systemic circulation (bypasses liver) which are commonly single and can be intra- or extrahepatic</p><p>- Acquired: Secondary to chronic portal hypertension which are more commonly multiple, torturous and extrahepatic</p>
56
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Which type of portosystemic shunts are generally surgical?

- Congenital

<p>- Congenital</p>
57
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Describe the differences between extrahepatic and intrahepatic congenital PSS.

- Extrahepatic: 2/3 of PSS, more common in small breeds

- Intrahepatic: More common in large breeds with a larger volume of portal blood being shunted resulting in more severe clinical signs

<p>- Extrahepatic: 2/3 of PSS, more common in small breeds</p><p>- Intrahepatic: More common in large breeds with a larger volume of portal blood being shunted resulting in more severe clinical signs</p>
58
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What are clinical signs of a PSS?

- Neurologic (HE): Dullness, lethargy, head pressing, seizures, circling

- GI: Vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia, pica, ptyalism (cats)

- Urinary: Hematuria, pollakiuria, urinary obstruction

- Copper colored irises in cats

<p>- Neurologic (HE): Dullness, lethargy, head pressing, seizures, circling</p><p>- GI: Vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia, pica, <strong>ptyalism (cats)</strong></p><p>- Urinary: Hematuria, pollakiuria, urinary obstruction</p><p>-<strong> Copper colored irises in cats</strong></p>
59
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What signalment/history is typically associated with PSS?

- Chronic or acute illness

- Young age

- Failure to thrive

- Dullness/lethargy

- Bizarre behavior

- Anesthetic intolerance

- Incidental (BW, urolith analysis)

60
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What CBC findings are associated with PSS?

- Microcytosis, non-regenerative anemia

- +/- leukocytosis

61
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What biochemistry changes are associated with PSS?

- Hypoalbuminemia

- Hypocholesterolemia

- Hypoglycemia

- Decreased BUN

- +/- mild to moderate liver enzyme concentrations

62
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What UA changes are associated with PSS?

- Decreased USG

- Ammonium biurate crystalluria

63
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What is the test of choice for PSS?

- Bile Acids

- Increased due to shunting of reabsorbed bile acids into systemic circulation

64
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What ammonia values are expected in patient with PSS and why?

- Elevated

- Primary source of blood ammonia is GIT; Conversion to urea in the liver does not occur efficiently, resulting in increased ammonia

65
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What imaging is available for PSS?

- AUS (User dependent, but can allow visualization of concurrent urinary abnormalities)

- Scintigraphy

- CT angiography (gold standard for humans (and at OSU), non-invasive, fast, imaging of all portal tributaries)

- Portovenography

- MRI (uncommon)

<p>- AUS (User dependent, but can allow visualization of concurrent urinary abnormalities)</p><p>- Scintigraphy</p><p><strong>- CT angiography (gold standard for humans (and at OSU), non-invasive, fast, imaging of all portal tributaries)</strong></p><p>- Portovenography</p><p>- MRI (uncommon)</p>
66
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What are the two ways to administer scintigraphy?

1) Transplenic (preferred, lower dose)

2) Transcolonic

67
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What is the typical flow of nuclear scintigraphy following administration? What about in cases of PSS?

- Spleen -> Liver -> Heart -> Body

- Spleen -> Heart -> Body -> Liver

68
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When is portovenography performed? What veins are used?

- Intraoperatively

- Jejunal or splenic vein

69
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What does portovenography indicate?

- Where shunt diverges from portal vein

- Extrahepatic - Caudal to 13th thoracic vertebrae

- Intrahepatic - Cranial to 13th thoracic vertebrae

70
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What medical management of PSS is appropriate?

- Medical management recommended before surgery

- Lactulose (Acidifies colonic contents, traps ammonia, faster transit time)

- ABX (Neomycin, metronidazole, amoxicillin to decrease bacterial load in colon)

- Protein restricted (soy based) diet

- Leviteracetam to reduce risk of post-operative seizures

- Proton pump inhibitor or H2 blockers for intrahepatic shunts

71
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What is the prognosis for PSS?

- Medical management survival 51% (MST 10 months with medical management alone)

- Surgical management survival 88%

72
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What acute medical management is useful for PSS?

- IVF (with glucose) to correct electrolyte abnormalities

- Enemas - warm water with lactulose

- ABX

- Seizures: Keppra or propofol

- Anemia: Blood transfusion

73
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What types of surgeries are preferred for PSS?

- Gradual occlusion (Ameroid constrictors or cellophane bands)

- NOT suture (less commonly used)

74
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Describe the use of an ameroid constrictor.

- It has an inner ring of casein, a hygroscopic substance that swells as it slowly absorbs body fluid and reduces the inner ring diameter leading to thrombus formation of the vessel

- +/- outer ring of stainless steel

<p>- It has an inner ring of casein, a hygroscopic substance that swells as it slowly absorbs body fluid and reduces the inner ring diameter leading to thrombus formation of the vessel</p><p>- +/- outer ring of stainless steel</p>
75
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Describe the use of a cellophane band.

- Folded piece of cellophane which is secured with hemoclips

- Fibrous tissue reaction

- Gradual occlusion

<p>- Folded piece of cellophane which is secured with hemoclips</p><p>- Fibrous tissue reaction</p><p>- Gradual occlusion</p>
76
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Where should gradual occlusion devices for PSS be placed?

- Close to the insertion site (systemic venous site) as there might be one large vessel, but there could another branch going into that shunt

77
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If using suture for occlusion of PSS, what must also be done?

- Measure portal pressures (They can't change too much)

- Maximal portal pressure 17-24cm H20

- Maximal change in portal pressures 9-10cm H20

- Maximal decrease in central venous pressure 1cm H20

78
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What should always be performed at the same time as surgical correction of a PSS?

- Biopsy of liver

- Assess for any grossly visible portal hypertension changes (cyanotic pancreas, hypermotile jejunum)

79
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How are intrahepatic shunts managed?

- Minimally invasive with intravascular stents and coils (challenging, left easiest to surgically correct)

<p>- Minimally invasive with intravascular stents and coils (challenging, left easiest to surgically correct)</p>
80
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What are complications of PSS and their repairs?

- Hypoglycemia

- Hemorrhage and anemia

- Portal hypertension (hypovolemic shock, abdominal pain, abdominal distention, diarrhea, vomiting)

- Seizures and encephalopathy

- Recurrence of clinical signs

81
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Describe the blood supply to the spleen.

- Splenic artery (two primary branches) arises from the celiac artery; has pancreatic branches to the left lobe of the pancreas (need to preserve these branches) and left gastroepiploic artery to the stomach (also try to preserve)

- Splenic vein drains to the portal vein (metastasis from spleen to liver is common)

- Short gastric arteries and veins shared with stomach

<p>- Splenic artery (two primary branches) arises from the celiac artery; has pancreatic branches to the left lobe of the pancreas (need to preserve these branches) and left gastroepiploic artery to the stomach (also try to preserve)</p><p>- Splenic vein drains to the portal vein (metastasis from spleen to liver is common)</p><p>- Short gastric arteries and veins shared with stomach</p>
82
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How can one find the splenic artery and pancreatic branches to the left limb of the pancreas?

- Under the superficial leaf of the greater omentum

83
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What are functions of the spleen?

- Immune functions

- Erythrocyte maintenance

- RBC reservoir

- Extramedullary hematopoiesis

84
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What is the structure of splenic masses?

- More commonly cystic/cavitated (malignant or benign)

- Less commonly solid

85
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In large breed dogs with non-traumatic hemoabdomen and a splenic mass, 63-80% are malignant or benign? In dogs without a non-traumatic hemoabdomen and a splenic mass, almost the opposite is true with ~60% being ___________.

- Malignant

- Benign

86
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True or False? Spelenectomy is indicated in either malignant or benign masses.

True, regardless of pathology, splenectomy is indicated. Do not venture a “guess” on pathology to owner 

<p>True, regardless of pathology, splenectomy is indicated. Do not venture a&nbsp;“guess” on pathology to owner&nbsp;</p>
87
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Splenic torsions can occur with what other pathology?

- GDV

- They can also occur independently

88
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What is the typical clinical presentation of animals with a splenic torsion?

- May be acute or chronic

- Vague clinical signs when chronic: lethargy, inappetence, etc.

89
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How are splenic torsions diagnosed?

- "C-shape" on R lat abdominal radiograph

- Best diagnostic: ultrasound w/ color flow doppler

<p>- "C-shape" on R lat abdominal radiograph</p><p>- Best diagnostic: ultrasound w/ color flow doppler</p>
90
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What prophylactic procedure is recommended for large breed dogs with splenic torsion?

- Gastropexy

91
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ALWAYS complete ___ first before splenectomy.

workup 

92
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What workup is recommended prior to a splenectomy?

- History and physical exam

- CBC/chem/UA

- Met check (3 view thoracic rads or thoracic CT scan)

<p>- History and physical exam</p><p>- CBC/chem/UA</p><p>- Met check (3 view thoracic rads or thoracic CT scan)</p>
93
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What peri-operative ABX are recommended for a splenectomy?

- Cefazolin 22 mg/kg IV q90minutes in surgery

<p>- Cefazolin 22 mg/kg IV q90minutes in surgery</p>
94
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When performing a splenectomy, biopsy the ______________ if any lesions are present.

- Liver

<p>- Liver</p>
95
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Describe the "three(ish)" vessel technique for a splenectomy.

1) Short gastric artery and vein (treat them like an ovarian pedicle); Start here -> Improves mobility

2) Left gastroepiploic artery and vein (caudal/omental vessels)

3) Splenic artery/vein

<p>1) Short gastric artery and vein (treat them like an ovarian pedicle); Start here -&gt; Improves mobility</p><p>2) Left gastroepiploic artery and vein (caudal/omental vessels)</p><p>3) Splenic artery/vein</p>
96
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Describe Dr. T's 5 vessel technique for a splenectomy/

1) Short gastric artery and vein (treat them like an ovarian pedicle); Start here -> Improves mobility

2) Splenic artery/vein branch

3) Splenic artery/vein branch distal to left gastroepiploic

4) Splenic artery/vein adjacent to left gastroepoploic

5) Deep and superficial left marginal artery and vein

<p>1) Short gastric artery and vein (treat them like an ovarian pedicle); Start here -&gt; Improves mobility</p><p>2) Splenic artery/vein branch</p><p>3) Splenic artery/vein branch distal to left gastroepiploic</p><p>4) Splenic artery/vein adjacent to left gastroepoploic</p><p>5) Deep and superficial left marginal artery and vein</p>
97
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What are some potential post-operative complications for a splenectomy?

- Ventricular arrhythmias - 44% of dogs (often don't require Tx)

- Hemorrhage

- Tumor spread if malignant

- Pancreatitis

- GDV (Consider prophylactic gastropexy for high risk breeds; always do a prophylactic gaastropexy for splenic torsion)

98
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What are some non-surgical diseases of the spleen?

- Nodular hyperplasia (Monitor with AUS over time)

- Hemosiderotic plaques

- Splenosis - "Daughter spleens"

- Lymphoma (usually not surgical)

99
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What blood supply to the hypodermis is important?

- Direct cutaneous artery and vein

<p>- Direct cutaneous artery and vein</p>
100
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What are the stages of wound healing?

1) Inflammation

2) Proliferation/repair

3) Maturation/remodeling

<p>1) Inflammation</p><p>2) Proliferation/repair</p><p>3) Maturation/remodeling</p>