Pharm Exam 1 Question Bank

What is a potential complication of antacid use in renal insufficiency?

a) Hypokalemia

b) Reflux

c) Hyperglycemia

d) Aluminum toxicity

e) Hypertension

d) Aluminum toxicity

Which drug increases metabolism of theophylline?

a) Acetaminophen 

b) Cimetidine

c) Nicotine

d) Omeprazole

 e) Aspirin

c) Nicotine

Which medication can lead to CNS stimulation in children as a paradoxical effect?

a) Dextromethorphan

b) Acetaminophen

c) Ibuprofen

d) Simethicone

e) Diphenhydramine

e) Diphenhydramine

Which class of drug is used to treat myasthenia gravis?

a) Calcium channel blockers

b) Cholinesterase inhibitors

c) Alpha agonists

d) Beta blockers

e) Muscarinic antagonists

b) Cholinesterase inhibitors

Which of the following is a parasympatholytic effect?

a) Sweating

b) Pupil dilation

c) Increased GI motility

d) Salivation

e) Lacrimation

b) Pupil dilation

Which is an adverse effect of cholinergic drugs?

a) Dry skin

b) Blurred vision

c) Sweating

d) Constipation

e) Urinary retention

c) Sweating

What does simethicone do?

a) Increases peristalsis

b) Stimulates mucus secretion

c) Neutralizes stomach acid

d) Blocks H2 receptors

e) Relieves gas by breaking up bubbles

e) Relieves gas by breaking up bubbles

Which NSAID has the greatest risk of GI upset and bleeding?

a) Aspirin

b) Acetaminophen

c) Ibuprofen

d) Dexamethasone

e) Celecoxib

a) Aspirin

Which antacid has the highest sodium content and should be avoided in hypertension?

a) Sodium bicarbonate

b) Simethicone

c) Magnesium hydroxide

d) Aluminum hydroxide

e) Calcium carbonate

a) Sodium bicarbonate

Which OTC cough suppressant acts on the medulla to raise the cough threshold?

a) Diphenhydramine

b) Dextromethorphan

c) Guaifenesin

d) Oxymetazoline

e) Acetaminophen

b) Dextromethorphan

What happens to most oral drugs after absorption?

a) First-pass metabolism in liver

b) Direct entry into brain

c) Bypass liver

d) Immediate renal excretion

e) Entry into lungs

a) First-pass metabolism in liver

Which medication blocks histamine at H1 receptors?

a) Ranitidine

b) Naproxen

c) Omeprazole

d) Misoprostol

e) Diphenhydramine

e) Diphenhydramine

Which OTC medication should be discontinued before allergy skin tests?

a) Dextromethorphan

b) Acetaminophen

c) Simethicone

d) Diphenhydramine

e) Ibuprofen

d) Diphenhydramine

What is psyllium's primary mechanism of action?

a) Decreases acid secretion

b) Absorbs water to bulk stool

c) Stimulates motility

d) Relieves gas

e) Blocks serotonin

b) Absorbs water to bulk stool

What is a major administration concern with psyllium?

a) Limit use to elderly

b) Avoid with fiber

c) Drink with plenty of water

d) Take on an empty stomach

e) Best used rectally

c) Drink with plenty of water

What herb increases serum levels of dextromethorphan, possibly causing toxicity?

a) Garlic

b) Chamomile

c) Valerian

d) St. John’s Wort

e) Ginger

d) St. John’s Wort

Which H2 receptor blocker has the most drug-drug interactions?

a) Famotidine

b) Nizatidine

c) Cimetidine

d) Ranitidine

e) Lansoprazole

c) Cimetidine

What is the effect of alpha-1 adrenergic receptor stimulation?

a) Bronchodilation

b) Vasodilation

c) Sweating

d) Bradycardia

e) Vasoconstriction

e) Vasoconstriction

Which amino acids are precursors to norepinephrine synthesis?

a) Phenylalanine and tyrosine

b) Glutamine and lysine

c) Glycine and arginine

d) Cysteine and methionine

e) Tryptophan and histidine

a) Phenylalanine and tyrosine

Which of the following describes an agonist?

a) Causes permanent receptor damage

b) Only binds without action

c) Binds and blocks a receptor

d) Reduces receptor numbers

e) Stimulates receptor and produces a response

e) Stimulates receptor and produces a response

What is the primary neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system?

a) Dopamine

b) Serotonin

c) GABA

d) Norepinephrine

e) Acetylcholine

d) Norepinephrine

Which mineral deficiency is linked to chronic PPI use?

a) Sodium

b) Potassium

c) Zinc

d) Magnesium

e) Iron

d) Magnesium

What is the mechanism of sucralfate in ulcer treatment?

a) Inhibits gastric motility

b) Blocks histamine receptors

c) Forms a protective barrier over ulcers

d) Neutralizes gastric acid

e) Stimulates acid secretion

c) Forms a protective barrier over ulcers

What is a common anticholinergic side effect of diphenhydramine?

a) Tachypnea

b) Hypotension

c) Increased sweating

d) Bradycardia

e) Dry mouth

e) Dry mouth

Which symptom may indicate NSAID-induced GI ulceration?

a) Fatigue

b) Rash

c) Black tarry stools

d) Headache

e) Bradycardia

c) Black tarry stools

Which effect is associated with beta-2 receptor activation?

a) Bronchodilation

b) Urinary retention

c) Sweating

d) Decreased heart rate

e) Pupil dilation

a) Bronchodilation

What precaution is required with sucralfate in renal patients?

a) Limit calcium intake

b) Monitor glucose

c) Reduce acid blockers

d) Monitor aluminum levels

e) Avoid potassium

d) Monitor aluminum levels

Which drug class irreversibly inhibits H+/K+-ATPase in parietal cells?

a) H2 blockers

b) Sucralfate

c) Antacids

d) PPIs

e) Prostaglandins

d) PPIs

Which protein commonly binds drugs in plasma?

a) Albumin

b) Globulin

c) Myoglobin

d) Fibrinogen

e) Hemoglobin

a) Albumin

Which condition may increase in patients using PPIs long-term?

a) Asthma

b) C. difficile infection

c) Hypertension

d) Hypothyroidism

e) Diabetes

b) C. difficile infection

What is a side effect of calcium carbonate at high doses?

a) Constipation

b) Hyperkalemia

c) Diarrhea

d) Acidosis

e) Milk-alkali syndrome

e) Milk-alkali syndrome

Which NSAID has longer duration of action and is dosed BID?

a) Ketorolac

b) Naproxen

c) Aspirin

d) Ibuprofen

e) Acetaminophen

b) Naproxen

Which medication is contraindicated in patients with peptic ulcer disease?

a) Cimetidine

b) Acetaminophen

c) Ibuprofen

d) Simethicone

e) Diphenhydramine

c) Ibuprofen

What is the significance of protein-bound drugs?

a) They are rapidly excreted

b) They act immediately

c) They are pharmacologically inactive until free

d) They are absorbed faster

e) They cause toxicity

c) They are pharmacologically inactive until free

Which of the following is an antipyretic without anti-inflammatory properties?

a) Acetaminophen

b) Naproxen

c) Ibuprofen

d) Indomethacin

e) Aspirin

a) Acetaminophen

Which antacid ingredient commonly causes constipation?

a) Simethicone

b) Sodium bicarbonate

c) Aluminum hydroxide

d) Magnesium hydroxide

e) Calcium carbonate

c) Aluminum hydroxide

What is a contraindication for misoprostol use?

a) GERD

b) Constipation

c) Pregnancy

d) Peptic ulcer

e) NSAID use

c) Pregnancy

Which drug is used via sublingual route for angina relief?

a) Morphine

b) Digoxin

c) Ibuprofen

d) Nitroglycerin

e) Propranolol

d) Nitroglycerin

What is the effect of beta blockers on the heart?

a) Cause arrhythmias

b) Stimulate contraction

c) Decrease HR and contractility

d) Increase HR

e) Prolong QT interval

c) Decrease HR and contractility

Which over-the-counter medication can cause tinnitus as a side effect?

a) Simethicone

b) Acetaminophen

c) Diphenhydramine

d) Aspirin

e) Ranitidine

d) Aspirin

Which receptor type is found in the adrenal medulla?

a) Alpha-1

b) Beta-2

c) Muscarinic

d) Nicotinic

e) Alpha-2

d) Nicotinic

What adverse effect is associated with long-term PPI use?

a) Constipation

b) Hypoglycemia

c) Tinnitus

d) Vitamin B12 deficiency

e) Increased acid secretion

d) Vitamin B12 deficiency

Which medication blocks histamine at H1 receptors?

a) Ranitidine

b) Omeprazole

c) Diphenhydramine

d) Naproxen

e) Misoprostol

c) Diphenhydramine

Which condition may be treated with cholinergic drugs?

a) Tachycardia

b) Glaucoma

c) Peptic ulcer

d) Heart failure

e) Hypertension

b) Glaucoma

Which route is ideal in unconscious patients for rapid drug action?

a) Sublingual

b) Intravenous

c) Oral

d) Topical

e) Rectal

b) Intravenous

Which receptor is blocked by anticholinergic drugs?

a) Dopaminergic

b) Muscarinic

c) Nicotinic

d) Beta

e) Alpha

b) Muscarinic

Naloxone reverses opioid effects by acting as a:

a) Mixed agonist-antagonist

b) Opioid receptor modulator

c) Opioid receptor antagonist

d) Enzyme inducer

e) Receptor agonist

c) Opioid receptor antagonist

What supplement is best for patients on long-term PPI therapy for bone health?

a) Calcium citrate

b) Calcium gluconate

c) Calcium phosphate

d) Calcium carbonate

e) Calcium lactate

a) Calcium citrate

Which class of GI medication may develop tolerance (tachyphylaxis) after weeks of use?

a) Laxatives

b) PPIs

c) Antacids

d) H2 blockers

e) Probiotics

d) H2 blockers

Which factor increases drug penetration through the blood-brain barrier?

a) Water solubility

b) High lipid solubility

c) Large molecular size

d) Albumin binding

e) Polar nature

b) High lipid solubility

Which route provides the fastest drug response?

a) Sublingual

b) Intramuscular

c) Inhalation

d) Intravenous

e) Oral

d) Intravenous

What is a common side effect of sucralfate?

a) Diarrhea

b) Flatulence

c) Headache

d) Constipation

e) Heartburn

d) Constipation

Which drug blocks H2 receptors to reduce acid production?

a) Simethicone

b) Misoprostol

c) Aluminum hydroxide

d) Omeprazole

e) Ranitidine

e) Ranitidine

Which term describes drugs that inhibit the parasympathetic system?

a) Cholinergic

b) Parasympathomimetic

c) Anticholinergic

d) Adrenergic

e) Sympatholytic

c) Anticholinergic

Which condition can prolong drug half-life due to poor elimination?

a) Diabetes

b) Anemia

c) Hypertension

d) Asthma

e) Renal failure

e) Renal failure

Which neurotransmitter is released by all preganglionic neurons in the autonomic nervous system?

a) Norepinephrine

b) Acetylcholine

c) Serotonin

d) Glutamate

e) Dopamine

b) Acetylcholine

What describes a muscarinic receptor?

a) Stimulated by acetylcholine

b) Blocks alpha receptors

c) Found in skeletal muscle

d) Activated by nicotine

e) Part of somatic nervous system

a) Stimulated by acetylcholine

Which drug inhibits the metabolism of theophylline?

a) Warfarin

b) Cimetidine

c) Nicotine

d) Epinephrine

e) Ibuprofen

b) Cimetidine

What drug type increases norepinephrine release at synapses?

a) Muscarinic antagonist

b) Cholinergic blocker

c) Sympathomimetic

d) Beta blocker

e) Sympatholytic

c) Sympathomimetic

What rare but serious CNS side effect is associated with aluminum encephalopathy?

a) Tremor

b) Seizures

c) Parkinsonism

d) Hallucinations

e) Dementia

e) Dementia

Which receptor type is found at parasympathetic target organs?

a) dopaminergic

b) nicotinic

c) alpha

d) muscarinic

e) beta

d) muscarinic

Which factor increases drug penetration through the blood-brain barrier?

a) high lipid solubility

b) water solubility

c) large molecular size

d) albumin binding

e) polar nature

a) high lipid solubility

What is the primary route that bypasses the liver’s first pass effect?

a) oral

b) intermuscular

c) rectal

d) sublingual

d) sublingual

What determines the absorption site of weak acids and bases?

a) age of patient 

b) kidney function

c) rate of metabolism

d) pH of environment

e) drug concentration

d) pH of environment

What sort of drug is active and can be excreted?

a) stored in fat

b) protein bound

c) bound to enzymes

d) free drug

e) inactive metabolite

What is a clinical use of adrenergic blockers?

a) hypertension

b) anaphylaxis

c) asthma

d) hypotension

e) tachycardia

a) hypertension

What is the major organ responsible for drug metabolism?

a) liver

b) lung

c) spleen

d) kidney

e) pancreas

a) liver

Which drug is used to treat motion sickness?

a) acetaminophen

b) ranitidine

c) omeprazole

d) ibuprofen

e) diphenhydramine

e) diphenhydramine

Which over the counter medication can cause tinnitus as a side effect?

a) simethicone

b) diphenhydramine

c) aspirin

d) ranitidine

e) acetaminophren

c) aspirin

Which drug class irreversibly inhibits H+/K+-ATPase in parietal cells?

a) antacids

b) sucralfate

c) prostaglandins

d) H2 blockers

e) PPIs

e) PPIs

Which of the following is an anticholinergic effect?

a) dry mouth

b) miosis

c) bradycardia

d) diarrhea

e) salivation

a) dry mouth

Which enzyme degrades norepinephrine in the nerve terminal?

a) ChAT

b) tyrosine hyrdoxylase

c) COMT

d) acetylcholinesterase

e) MAO

e) MAO

Which adverse effect is associated with high dose acetaminophren?

a) ototoxicity

b) hepatotoxicity

c) nephrotoxicity

d) hyperkalemia

e) GI bleeding

b) hepatotoxicity

Which class of GI medication may develop tolerance (tachyphylaxis) after weeks of use?

a) antacids

b) PPIs

c) probiotics

d) laxatives

e) H2 blockers

e) H2 blockers

What is a common side effect of sucralfate?

a) headache

b) constipation

c) diarrhea

d) heartburn

e) flatulence

b) constipation

What is a contraindication for misoprostol use?

a) pregnancy

b) GERD

c) NSAID use

d) constipation

e) peptic ulcer

a) pregnancy

Which system is responsible for fight or flight response?

a) central nervous

b) somatic

c) parasympathetic

d) sympathetic

e) endocrine

d) sympathetic

What term is synonymous with parasympathomimetic drugs?

a) cholinergic

b) beta-blocker

c) sympatholytic

d) anticholinergic

e) adrenergic

a) cholinergic

Which enzyme is responsible for prostaglandin synthesis in inflammation?

a) cyclooxygenase

b) pepsin

c) kinase

d) amylase

e) lipase

a) cyclooxygenase

Which drug inhibits the metabolism of theophylline?

a) nicotine

b) warfarin

c) cimetidine

d) epinephrine

e) ibuprofen

c) cimetidine

What is the significance of protein-bound drugs?

a) they are absorbed faster

b) the cause toxicity

c) they act immediately

d) they are rapidly excreted

e) they are pharmacologically inactive until free

Which medication is not classified as an NSAID?

a) asprin

b) acetaminophen

c) ketoprofen

d) naproxen

e) ibuprofen

b) acetaminophen

What is the primary neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system?

a) dopamine

b) serotonin

c) acetylcholine

d) norepinephrine

e) GABA

d) norepinephrine

Which drug increases metabolism of theophylline?

a) aspirin

b) omeprazole

c) cimetidine

d) acetaminophen

e) nicotine

e) nicotine

Which GI drug is most potent at acid suppression?

a) sucralfate

b) omeprazole

c) misoprostol

d) ranitidine

e) antacids

b) omeprazole

Why is transdermal delivery advantageous?

a) it offers continuous dosing avoiding first pass metabolism

b) it provides intermittent dosing

c) it irritates the skin

d) it works only on the skin

e) it avoids systemic circulation

a) it offers continuous dosing avoiding first pass metabolism

Which receptor type is found in the adrenal medulla?

a) alpha-1

b) muscarinic

c) beta-2

d) alpha-2

e) nicotinic

e) nicotinic

What drug combination increases the risk of GI bleeding?

a) aspirin and garlic

b) ibuprofin and loperamide

c) acetaminophen and cetirizine

d) ranitidine and calcium carbonate

e) diphenhydramine and simethicone

a) aspirin and garlic

Which neurotransmitter is released by all preganglionic neurons in the autonomic nervous system?

a) dopamine

b) acetylcholine

c) norepinephrine

d) glutamate

e) serotonin

b) acetylcholine

What does efficacy refer to in pharmacodynamics?

a) drug clearance rate

b) drugs ability to produce a response

c) drugs ability to bind to a receptor

d) drug dosage

e) drug plasma concentration

b) drugs ability to produce a response

What is a serious risk of long term oxymetazoline nasal spray use?

a) nasal dryness

b) infection

c) nasal polyps

d) rebound congestions

e) anosmia

d) rebound congestions

Which drug is used via sublingual route for angina relief?

a) digoxin

b) morphine

c) propanolol

d) nitroglycerin

e) ibuprofin

d) nitroglycerin

What drug is used to displace warfarin from albumin binding sites?

a) digoxin

b) acetaminophen

c) aspirin

d) furosemide

e) ibuprofen

c) aspirin

What condition contraindicates use of diphenhydramine?

a) allergic rhinitis

b) asthma

c) migraine

d) BPH

e) GERD

d) BPH

What is the primary focus of pharmacodynamics?

a) drug metabolism

b) drug bioavailability

c) how drugs are eliminated

d) how drugs are absorbed

e) mechanism of drug action

e) mechanism of drug action

How does misoprostol protect the stomach?

a) neutralizes acid

b) enhances mucus and bicarbonate

c) block COX-2

d) stimulates gastrin

e) inhibits H+/K+ ATPase

b) enhances mucus and bicarbonate

What is a key adverse effect of diphendyramine?

a) bradycardia

b) insomnia

c) increased salivation

d) photosensitivity

e) hyperactivity

d) photosensitivity

What is the significance of enterohepatic circulation?

a) prolongs drug action

b) reduces drug effect

c) shortens drug half-life

d) reduces absorption

e) increases GI excretion

a) prolongs drug action

Which autonomic drug is used to treat bradycardia?

a) propanolol

b) pilocarpine

c) atropine

d) bethanechol

e) neostigmine

c) atropine

What describes a muscarinic receptor?

a) stimulated by acetylcholine

b) blocks alpha receptors

c) part of somatic nervous system

d) found in skeletal muscles

e) activated by nicotine

a) stimulated by acetylcholine