ARDMS SPI EXAM LATEST 2024-2025 UPDATE COMPREHENSIVE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS| ALREADY GRADED A+/PASSED 100%

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578 Terms

1
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Example of nonspecular reflector

red blood cells

2
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What happens to spatial pulse length when frequency increases?

decreases

3
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Axial resolution is dependent on?

wavelength

4
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Lateral resolution is dependent on?

beam diameter

5
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Where does the beam of an unfocused transducer diverge?

Fraunhofer zone

6
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Reverberation artifacts are a result of

two or more strong reflecting surfaces

7
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True/False: Grating lobes are essential for the proper operation of a linear phased array.

False

8
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True/False: Electronically steered scanners always produce higher resolution images than do mechanically steered scanners.

False

9
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True/False: An annular array scanner uses mechanical beam steering.

True

10
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True/False: A linear sequenced array cannot be dynamically focused.

False

11
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registration or B-mode alignment

Which AIUM test object function utilizes all the groups of wires in the AIUM 100 mm test object?

<p>Which AIUM test object function utilizes all the groups of wires in the AIUM 100 mm test object?</p>
12
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axial resolution

Which AIUM test object function utilizes the A group of wires in the AIUM 100 mm test object?

<p>Which AIUM test object function utilizes the A group of wires in the AIUM 100 mm test object?</p>
13
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lateral resolution

Which AIUM test object function utilizes the B group of wires in the AIUM 100 mm test object?

<p>Which AIUM test object function utilizes the B group of wires in the AIUM 100 mm test object?</p>
14
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dead zone

Which AIUM test object function utilizes the D group of wires in the AIUM 100 mm test object?

<p>Which AIUM test object function utilizes the D group of wires in the AIUM 100 mm test object?</p>
15
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depth calibration

Which AIUM test object function utilizes the C or E groups of wires in the AIUM 100 mm test object?

<p>Which AIUM test object function utilizes the C or E groups of wires in the AIUM 100 mm test object?</p>
16
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What happens to axial resolution when spatial pulse length is decreased?

improves

17
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How much will a 3.5 MHz pulse be attenuated after passing through 2 cm of soft tissue?

3.5 dB

18
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Propagation speed errors result in

improper axial position

19
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Enhancement is caused by

weakly attenuating structures

20
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The Doppler shift frequency is

directly proportional to the velocity of the reflector

21
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The number of frames per second necessary for a real-time image to be flicker free is

more than 15

22
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True/False: The SPTA intensity will always be larger than the SATA intensity.

True

23
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The intensity of the ultrasound beam is usually greater at the focal zone because of

the smaller beam diameter

24
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If the amplitude is doubled, the intensity is

quadrupled

25
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The attenuation for soft tissue is

increased with tissue thickness

26
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The acoustic impedance of the matching layer

can be chosen to improve transmission into the body

27
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True/False: In a pulse-echo system, the quality factor should be made as large as possible.

False

28
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True/False: The beam diameter is constant in the near zone.

False

29
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The operating frequency is dependent on

thickness of the crystal

30
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The period of an ultrasound wave is

the time of one wavelength

31
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The dynamic range of a system is

the ratio of smallest to largest power level that the system can handle

32
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True/False: The intensity of an ultrasonic beam can be measured with radiation force balance.

True

33
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Increasing the pulse repetition period

increases the maximum depth that can be imaged

34
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Ultrasound bioeffects

are not confirmed below 100 mW/cm² SPTA

35
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True/False: No refraction can occur at an interface if the media impedances are equal.

False

36
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True/False: Smaller transducers always produce smaller beam diameters.

False

37
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True/False: The ultrasound beam profile can be measured with a hydrophone.

True

38
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True/False: The pulsed-Doppler system yields better depth resolution than the continuous wave (CW) system.

True

39
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True/False: The gray-scale display was made possible when digital scan converters replaced analog scan converters.

False

40
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True/False: Videotape recorders operating at 30 frames per second cannot be used with mechanical real-time units because the fram rate is too slow.

False

41
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True/False: Linear phased array scanners need no form of mechanical focusing because focusing is performed electronically.

False

42
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True/False: The fram rate of real-time scanners depends on the number of lines used to form the image.

True

43
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True/False: It is not possible to steer an annular phased array electronically.

True

44
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True/False: The near zone length should be kept as short as possible.

False

45
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What percentage of intensity of an ultrasound pulse incident on an interface of 0.25 and 0.75 rayls is reflected?

25%

46
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Axial resolution can be improved by using

higher frequency transducers

47
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When particle motion of a medium is parallel to the direction of a wave propagation, the wave being transmitted is called a

longitudinal wave

48
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The wavelength in a material having a wave velocity of 1500 m/s emplying a transducer frequency of 5 MHz is

0.3 mm

49
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The factor that determines the amount of reflection at the interface of two dissimilar materials is

difference in acoustic impedances

50
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The equation that describes the relationship among propagation, wavelength, and frequency is

λ = c/ƒ

51
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What three things can occur when an ultrasonic beam reaches the interface of two dissimilar materials?

reflection, refraction, mode conversion

52
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The acoustic impedance of a material is

equal to the product of density and velocity

53
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The average velocity of ultrasonic waves in soft tissue is

1540 m/s

54
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True/False: Receiver-angle values in CW Doppler analysis do not influence the final Doppler shift.

False

55
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Refraction occurs because of difference in ______ across an interface between two materials

wave velocity

56
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Reflection factor at an interface between two materials depends primarily on the change in ______ across the interface.

acoustic impedance

57
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The velocity of sound waves is primarily dependent on

medium and mode of vibration

58
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Increasing the frequency of an ultrasonic longitudinal wave will result in ______ in the velocity of that wave.

no change

59
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The change in direction of an ultrasonic beam, when it passes from one medium to another, in which elasticity and density differ from those of the first medium is called

refraction

60
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A long near zone can be obtained by

using a higher frequency transducer

61
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If a 2 MHz frequency is used in human soft tissue, the wavelength is approximately

0.75 mm

62
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The ratio of particle pressure to particle velocity at a given point within the ultrasonic field is

impedance

63
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What is the following formula used to determine?

(2 × velocity of reflector × original frequency) / velocity of sound

Doppler shift frequency

64
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The principle that states that all points on a wavefront can be considered as point sources for the production of sperical secondary wavelets was postulated by

Huygens

65
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A 10 dB difference in signal intensity is equivalent to a _______ difference.

tenfold

66
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The level below which signals are not transmitted through an ultrasound receiver system is the

threshold, negative, reject level

67
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Gray-scale systems typically use _____ as a means of signal dynamic range reduction.

compression

68
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The strength of the echo is related to the height of the deflection on the oscilloscope for the ____ display.

A-mode

69
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What are methods of restricting the dynamic range of the signal?

suppression, rejection, compression

70
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Most of the scan converters currently in use are of the _____ type?

digital

71
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The fraction of time that pulsed ultrasound is actually on is the

duty factor

72
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The ability of an imaging system to detect weak reflections is called

sensitivity

73
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What image shape is produced by a linear sequenced array transducer?

rectangular

74
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The major factor in determining the acoustic power output of the transducer is the

magnitude of the voltage spike

75
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Two primary mechanisms that produce tissue biological effects are

thermal and cavitational

76
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The _____ relates bandwidth to operating frequency.

quality factor, Q Factor

77
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The extraneous beams of ultrasound generated from the edges of individual transducer elements and not in the direction of the main ultrasonic beam are called

side lobes

78
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The product of the period and the number of cycles in the pulse is the

pulse duration

79
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The substance typically used as a matrix on the imaging surface of an analog scan converter tube is

silicon oxide

80
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Specular reflection occurs when

the reflector surface is small and smooth as compared with wavelength

81
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The refractive index of water is slightly altered when a sound beam passes through it, thus causing compression and rarefaction of the water molecules. The phenomenon is the basis for the _____ technique of beam measurement.

Schlieren

82
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Artifacts appearing as parallel, equally spaced lines are characteristic of

reverberation

83
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An increase in reflection amplitude from reflectors that lie behind a weakly attenuating structure is called

enhancement

84
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The amount of dispersion in the far field of an ultrasound beam can be decreased by

using a larger diameter transducer

85
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Longitudinal or axial resolution is directly dependent on

spatial pulse length

86
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The transducer _____ is equal to the ratio of the operating frequency to the frequency bandwidth.

Q factor

87
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The technique that uses an optical system to produce a visible image of an ultrasonic beam is the _____ technique.

Schlieren

88
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Which of the following is the least obstacle to the transmission of ultrasound?

A. MUSCLE

B. FAT

C. BONE

D. BLOOD

blood

89
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The ratio of the largest power to the smallest power that the ultrasound system can handle is the

dynamic range

90
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Ultrasound waves in tissues are called _____ waves.

longitudinal

91
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axial resolution

The row of wires in the middle are used to check

<p>The row of wires in the middle are used to check</p>
92
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scan C

Which of the diagrams shows correct arm registration?

<p>Which of the diagrams shows correct arm registration?</p>
93
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dead zone

The row of wires on top is used to check?

<p>The row of wires on top is used to check?</p>
94
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call for service

While using the AIUM test object to test an articulated-arm scanner you obtain an image similar to scan A. You should

<p>While using the AIUM test object to test an articulated-arm scanner you obtain an image similar to scan A. You should</p>
95
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horizontal caliper check

The row of wires on the bottom is used to check for

<p>The row of wires on the bottom is used to check for</p>
96
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Which of the following CANNOT be checked when the AIUM test object is scanned from the top only?

A. AXIAL RESOLUTION

B. LATERAL RESOLUTION

C. VERTICAL DISTANCE CALIBRATION

D. HORIZONTAL DISTANCE CALIBRATION

lateral resolution

97
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What parameters CANNOT be evaluated by the AIUM test object?

gray scale, dynamic range

98
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Scanning a test object from three sides without erasing would be used to check

registration

99
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When using the AIUM test object, which of the following should be kept constant for comparisons?

A. OUTPUT POWER

B. TGC

C. REJECT

D. TRANSDUCER MHz & FOCUS

all the above

100
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Which of the following type(s) of ultrasound machine can be used with AIUM test object?

A. LINEAR ARRAY

B. STATIC SCANNER

C. PHASED ARRAY

D. ANNULAR ARRAY

E. SECTOR SCANNER

all the above