1037DOH - Oral Microbiology

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microbiology for trimester 2

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73 Terms

1
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what is a microbiome?

  • the collection of genomes from the total culturable and unculturable microorganisms

  • includes biomolecules within a defined habitat

2
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what is a microbiota?

  • total collection of resident microbes within the microbiome

3
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what are two features of microorganisms you can use classify and categorise them? briefly describe what these are

  • phenotype

    • observable characteristics/traits of an organism

  • genotype

    • organism’s complete set of heritable genes/genes that can be passed down from parents to offspring

4
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what are the three domains of life?

  1. bacteria (prokaryotes)

  2. archaea (prokaryotes)

  3. eucarya (eukaryotes)

5
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describe the possible shapes and typical size of bacteria (MORPHOLOGY OF BACTERIA)

shapes

  • cocci (spherical)

  • bacilli (rod shapes)

  • spirochaetes (helical)

  • pleomorphic (appear as both cocci and bacillary forms)

size

  • 0.2 - 5 µm

6
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describe the flagella structure on bacteria

  • motile - whip like filaments

  • made of flagellin (a type of protein)

  • monotrichous - single + one ended

  • lopotrichous - many + one ended

  • peritrichous - all over outer surface

<ul><li><p>motile - whip like filaments</p></li><li><p>made of flagellin (a type of protein)</p></li><li><p>monotrichous - single + one ended</p></li><li><p>lopotrichous - many + one ended</p></li><li><p>peritrichous - all over outer surface</p></li></ul><p></p>
7
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what are fimbriae and pili on bacteria?

  • pilin is a protein

  • both are fine, hair-like short structure

  • they mediate adhesion of bacteria to receptors on host (human) cell surface

8
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what is the glycoalyx? (bacteria)

  • polysaccharide coating covering bacteria’s outer surface

  • allow adhesion to structures - eg teeth, oral mucosa, heart valves and catheters

  • contribute to formation of biofilms

  • eg streptococcus mutans - contributes to dental caries

9
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what is the capsule layer around bacteria?

  • amorphous gelatinous layer surrounding bacteria

  • polysaccharide formed - may also contain protein

  • polysaccharides vary between bacteria and within a species (serological type)

10
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what is the cell wall in bacteria?

  • multi-layered structure

  • allow rigidity

  • porous and permeable to substances with a low molecular weight

  • inner layer is peptidoglycan (protein + sugar)

  • inner layer varies in thickness and chemical composition (depending on gram-staining property of the bacteria)

11
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describe gram positive, gram negative stains and LPS

gram positive

  • dark blue/purple stain

  • indicates thicker peptioglycan layer (inner cell wall)

gram negative

  • pink stain

  • indicates thinner peptidoglycan layer

  • indicates complex outer membrane (including lipopolysaccharide (LPS), lipoprotein, and phospholipids, and porins (transportation of molecules)

LPS

  • toxic (endotoxin)

  • released when cell lysed

12
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describe the cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria

  • phospholipid bilayer

    • similar to eukaryotic cells, but bacterial ones dont normally contain sterols

  • allows…

    • active transport + selected diffusion of molecules in and out of the cell

    • cell wall precursors synthesis

    • secretion of enzymes and toxins

    • electron transport

    • oxidative phosphorylation (in aerobic species)

  • has supporting receptors and other proteins of the

    • chemotactic and

    • sensory transduction systems

13
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describe aerobes, facultative aerobes and anaerobes

aerobes

  • organism able to live and reproduce only in the presence of free oxygen

facultative aerobes

  • grow either with or without free oxygen

anaerobes

  • grow in absence of free oxygen

  • those that grow only in absence of oxygen are called obligate/strict anaerobes

14
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describe the cytoplasm structure of bacteria

  • thick solution (amorphous matrix)

  • fills each cell

  • enclosed by cytoplasmic membrane

  • mainly composed of water, ions, metabolites and proteins

  • structures:

    • nuclear material

    • ribosomes

  • in eukaryotes, cytoplasm includes all of the material inside the cell and outside the nucleus

15
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describe the nuclear material (nucleoid) of bacterial DNA

  • single, supercoiled and circular chromosome

  • 2000 genes

  • 1mm long

  • undergoes semi-conservative replication bidirectionally from a fixed point

16
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describe the nuclear material (nucleoid) of eukaryotic DNA

  • contained within the nucleus

17
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describe function of ribosomes

  • in bacterial (prokaryote) ribosomes are in the cytoplasm

  • in eukaryotes, ribosomes are attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum

  • facilitate protein synthesis

18
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what is E. coli’s full name?

escherichia coli

19
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what is S. mutan’s full name?

streptococcus mutans

20
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name the 3 anaerobic bacterial species identified in carious coronal dentine (GRAM POSITIVE)

  1. peptostreptococcus (COCCI)

    • P. anaerobius

    • P. parvulus

    • P. micros

  2. eubacterium (RODS)

    • E. alactolticum

    • E. aerofaciens

    • E. saburreum

  3. propionibacterium

    • P. acnes

    • P. avidum

    • P. lymphophilum

21
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name the 3 facultative bacterial species identified in carious coronal dentine (GRAM POSITIVE)

  1. streptococcus (COCCI)

    • S. mutans

    • S sobrinus

    • S. intermedius

  2. actinomyces (RODS)

    • A. israelii

    • A. odontolyticus

  3. lactobacillus (RODS)

    • L. casei

    • L. plantarum

    • L. minutus

22
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name 4 gram negative anaerobic bacterial species identified in carious coronal dentine

  1. fusobacterium nucleatum (RODS)

  2. porphyromonas (RODS)

  3. prevotella (RODS)

  4. veillonella (COCCI)

23
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describe fungi

  • eukaryotic, single-celled microorganisms

  • genus Candida yeasts are pathogenic

24
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describe viruses

  • not living

  • can infect all types of life forms

  • exist in form of independent particles or virions

  • DNA or RNA is their genetic material

  • shapes range from simple helical/icosahedral forms to complex structure

  • about 1/100th the size of bacteria

25
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when infected with a virus, a ____ cell is forced to rapidly produce thousands of identical copies of the original ______

  1. host

  2. virus

26
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what is pulpitis?

  • inflamed pulp

  • pain in A-delta and C-type nerves

27
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what is pulp necrosis?

  • affects dental pulp

  • after-effect of pulpitis/trauma

  • total necrosis is symptomless

  • partial necrosis may display pulpitis

28
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what is periapical granuloma?

  • affects periapical tissues

  • usually resulting from long-standing infection or necrotic pulp

  • 3 stages

    1. primary acute apical periodontitis

      • new, acute inflammation at the root

    2. chronic apical periodontitis

      • long-term, low-grade inflammation (can lead to granuloma)

    3. secondary acute apical periodontitis

      • chronic lesion that flares up

      • becomes acutely painful again

29
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what is a periapical abscess?

  • localised collection of pus at the root tip due to bacterial infection

  • two types

    1. primary acute apical abscess

      • occurs at the first sign of infection

      • usually painful

      • swelling may occur

    2. secondary acute apical abscess

      • flare-up of chronic infection

      • becomes acutely infected

      • forms pus

30
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what type of infection is oral candidiasis/candidosis?

  • opportunistic infection

  • i.e occurs in ‘compromised’ patients

31
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where do primary and secondary oral candidiasis/candidosis occur?

  • primary

    • only in oral/perioral tissues

  • secondary

    • oral/perioral tissues

    • other mucous/cutaneous surfaces

32
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what is candida associated denture stomatitis?

  • fancy for sore mouth from dentures

  • very common

  • treatment is denture hygiene or improving its quality

  • medical factors (eg diabetes) contribute to this

  • antifungals can also help

33
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what is median rhomboid glossitis?

  • papillary atrophy

  • can be ellipitcal or rhomboid

  • in the midline of the tongue and anterior to the circumvallate papillae (the round tastebuds at the back of the tongue)

  • oral hygiene and antifungals can help this

34
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what is angular stomatitis/cheilitis?

  • lesions on the angles of the mouth

  • candida species and staph. aureus contribute to this

  • denture stomatitis, topical antifungals and underlying medical conditions treatment can help this

35
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what is otitis media (chronic suppurative otitis media)?

  • infection or middle ear

  • appears as earache

  • can have discharge and pain

36
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what is sinusitis (chronic sinusitis)?

  • occurs in frontal and maxillary sinuses

  • can occur during common cold

  • can appear with headache, pain, nasal obstruction, and can mimic toothache

37
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what are some complications of a streptococcal sore throat?

  • rheumatic fever

  • chronic heart valve disease

  • acute glomerulonephritis

38
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explain the rheumatic fever complication of a strep throat

  • symptoms are fever, pain and swelling in the joints

  • pancarditis: inflammation of all parts of the heart

39
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explain the chronic heart valve disease complication of a strep throat

  • damage to heart valves over time, esp mitral and aortic valves

  • increases risk of bacterial endocarditis (infection of heart valves)

  • requires prophylactic antibiotics before dental procedures to prevent infection

40
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explain the acute glomerulonephritis complication of a strep throat

  • kidney glomeruli are inflamed

  • can cause blood in urine

  • swelling

  • and high bp

41
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describe bacterial/infective endocarditis

  • predominately bacteria-caused

    • streptococci (60%)

    • staphylococci (25%)

    • other bacteria (15%)

  • can happen thru periodontal treatment

  • identify at-risk patients

  • use preventive dental care

42
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what bacteria cause bronchitis?

  • H. influenzae

  • S. pneumoniae

43
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what is a major effect of cystic fibrosis?

  • compromised natural defence mechanisms

44
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what causes pertussis (whooping cough)>

  • bordetella pertussis

  • happens in children

  • prevent via vaccinations

45
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what bacteria causes tuberculosis?

  • mycobacterium tuberculosis

46
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what is human immunodeficiency virus?

  • RNA virus

  • leads to acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)

47
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common oral signs of AIDS (orofacial manifestations)

  • fungal infections

    • oral candidiasis (thrush) - white patches in mouth

  • viral infections

    • herpes simplex virus

      • herpetic stomatitis (cold sores)

    • human herpesvirus 8

      • kaposi’s sarcoma (purple/red lesions)

    • epstein-barr virus

      • hairy leukoplakia (white hairy patches on the side of the tongue)

  • severe, necrotising gingivitis and periodontitis

48
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3 distinct particles of Hepatitis B

  • Dane particle

    • 42 nm

    • complete infective virus

  • spherical forms

    • 22 nm

    • non-infective

  • tubular forms

    • 22 × 100 nm

    • non-infective

49
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describe chronic persistent hepatitis

  • does not develop liver damage

  • produces viral liver antigen (HBsAg)

50
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describe chronic active hepatitis

  • extremely infectious

  • Dane particles present in blood

51
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describe HCV (hep C)

  • affects 3% of the population

  • parental route is blood products

  • persistent chronic infection

52
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_______ result in cell aggregation, leading to improved clearance of _______ from the oral cavity during swallowing, chewing and speaking

  • agglutinins

  • bacteria

53
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what do lysozymes do?

  • breaks down bacterial cell walls

  • part of the defence mechanisms of the oral cavity

54
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name some antimicrobial peptides (defence mechanisms of the oral cavity)

  • Histatin 5

  • Human beta defensin-1 (and defensin-2)

  • Magainin II and Magainin II amide

55
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how do tonsils contribute to the defence mechanism of the oral cavity?

  • house B and T lymphocytes and macrophages

  • lymphoid tissue

56
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how does epithelium defend the oral cavity?

  • inhibits bacterial adhesion

  • facilitates shedding of cells

  • has a keratin layer

57
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what does connective tissue possess that makes it part of the oral cavity’s defence mechanism?

  • highly vascular so has lots of inflammatory response cells

58
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why is gingival crevicular fluid a good oral cavity defence mechanism?

  • continuous flow of fluid

  • has albumin, transferrin and lysozymes

  • has components of the immune system (lymphocytes, plasma cells and macrophages)

59
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what does dentinal tubule fluid do?

  • protect pulpo-dentine complex from bacterial antigens or toxic by-products

  • allow pulp healing

  • deposits serum in dentinal tubules to inhibit bacterial invasion of dentin by S. gordonii and E. faecalis

60
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describe the colonisation of microbial biofilms

  • first bacteria adhere to host tissue

  • they utilise available nutrients

  • compete and co-operate with other species in the immediate environment

  • contend with host defence mechanisms

  • cells divide and grow

  • host becomes colonised in multiple sites

61
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describe the biofilm benefit to cells

  • reduction of the antimicrobial concentration in the bulk fluid surrounding the biofilm

  • failure of the antimicrobial agent to penetrate the biofilm

  • adoption of a resistant physiological state/phenotype by at least a fraction of the cells in the biofilm

clin sig

  • reduced effectiveness of chemical management of pathogenic plaque/biofilm

  • reduced effectiveness of chemical management of pathogenic endodontic biofilm

62
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list the 5 factors that affect the development and characteristics of biofilms

  • flora

  • ecology

  • nutrients

  • anatomy

  • time

63
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nutrition factor of characteristics/development of biofilms

  • mouth contains decaying tissue, fluids from the root canal and serum-like substances

  • key nutrients are carbohydrates, amino acids/peptides (for protein prod.) and vitamin K and hemin (necessary for some bact.)

  • first phase sugar-eating bacteria eat carbs

  • second phase: proteins broken down, aids in fermentation + digestion of remaining carbs

  • final phase: more protein breakdown, involving bacteria like P. intermedia, F. nucleatum and eubacterium

64
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_______ anaerobes dominate initially and develops with ________ anaerobes

  • facultative

  • obligate

65
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presence of _____-_______ _________ (eg prevotella) associated with advanced disease

gram-negative anaerobes

66
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what are macrophages?

  • phagocyte

  • detect, engulf and destroy pathogens and apoptotic cells

67
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what are dendritic cells?

  • antigen-presenting cells

  • process antigen material

  • present it on the cell surface to T-cells

68
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what do B and T lymphocytes do respectively?

B

  • make antibodies


T

  • help kill tumor cells and control immune responses

69
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what does the complement system do?

  • enhances the ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to clear microbes and damaged cells

70
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what do cytokines do?

  • they are small secreted proteins released by cells

  • have a specific effect on the interactions + communications between cells

71
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types of cytokine (list them)

  • lymphocytes

  • monocytes

  • chemokine

  • interleukin

72
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what is PAMP (pathogen associated molecular pattern)?

  • small molecular motifs conserved within a class of microbes

  • vast array of different types of

    molecules can serve as PAMPs

73
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what are pattern recognition receptors?

  • toll-like receptors (TLRs) and others