HLTH 408 Comprehensive Respiratory Therapy Review

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Question-and-Answer style flashcards covering RT scope of practice, aerosol devices, lung expansion therapy, airway clearance, chest tubes, capnography, HBOT, and filtration principles.

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52 Terms

1
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Define an aerosol in respiratory care.

A suspension of solid or liquid particles in a carrier gas.

2
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List two factors that influence aerosol deposition.

Particle size and humidity (others: flow rate, device technique).

3
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What device delivers a pressurized, metered dose of medication and often requires coordination?

Pressurized Metered-Dose Inhaler (pMDI).

4
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State one advantage and one disadvantage of pMDIs.

Advantage: portable and fast; Disadvantage: technique-dependent/needs coordination.

5
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Why are spacers or valved holding chambers used with pMDIs?

They decrease oropharyngeal deposition and improve pulmonary delivery.

6
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How does a valved holding chamber differ from a simple spacer?

It contains one-way valves that hold aerosol until inhalation begins.

7
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What activates a Dry-Powder Inhaler (DPI)?

The patient’s inspiratory flow (breath-actuated).

8
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List two drawbacks of DPIs.

Performance depends on adequate inspiratory flow; sensitive to humidity.

9
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Name the three major categories of DPI designs.

Single-dose, multi-dose blister, and reservoir DPIs.

10
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Which nebulizer type uses compressed gas to generate aerosol?

Jet nebulizer.

11
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Describe how mesh nebulizers create aerosol.

Medication is forced through a vibrating mesh containing microscopic holes.

12
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What key limitation do ultrasonic nebulizers have?

Aerosol output can be altered by drug viscosity/saline concentration.

13
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What does SVN stand for and what is a primary drawback?

Small Volume Nebulizer; relatively inefficient and time-consuming.

14
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Define atelectasis.

Collapse or closure of alveoli within the lung.

15
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Differentiate gas-absorption versus compression atelectasis.

Gas-absorption: blocked airway prevents ventilation; compression: external pressure (e.g., pleural effusion) collapses alveoli.

16
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What creates lung expansion during therapy?

A pressure gradient between alveolar pressure and transthoracic pressure.

17
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Give two common postoperative causes of atelectasis.

Sedation, pain, or mucus plugs.

18
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Why is early mobilization recommended post-surgery?

It improves ventilation, mobilizes secretions, and reduces atelectasis risk.

19
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How frequently should incentive spirometry be performed while awake?

10 sustained-maximal inspirations per hour.

20
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When is IPPB indicated over incentive spirometry?

When a patient cannot or will not use IS effectively or needs short-term positive pressure assistance.

21
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What is the primary goal of CPAP in lung expansion therapy?

Maintain positive airway pressure throughout the respiratory cycle to keep alveoli open.

22
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State one benefit of High-Flow Nasal Cannula (HFNC).

Delivers heated, humidified oxygen at high flows to improve oxygenation and reduce work of breathing.

23
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What is breath stacking and why is it used?

Sequential inspiratory efforts without exhalation to increase lung volume and recruit alveoli.

24
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Why is removal of retained secretions important?

To prevent infection, airway obstruction, and subsequent atelectasis.

25
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List two indications for oral suctioning with a Yankauer tip.

Visible secretions or audible gurgling/obstruction.

26
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How do you measure insertion depth for nasopharyngeal suctioning?

From the tip of the nose to the earlobe (tragus).

27
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Give the safe suction pressure range for an adult.

100–150 mmHg.

28
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Contrast open versus closed suctioning systems.

Open: new sterile catheter each pass; Closed: inline catheter remains in ventilator circuit for repetitive use.

29
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What is the rule of thumb for selecting catheter size for suctioning an ETT?

Twice the internal diameter (mm) of the ETT, then choose the next smaller French size.

30
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Name three sterile methods for obtaining sputum samples.

Induced sputum, tracheal aspirate, or bronchoscopy (using a Luken’s trap).

31
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What keeps the lungs inflated under normal conditions?

Negative pressure in the pleural space relative to atmospheric pressure.

32
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Define pneumothorax.

The presence of air in the pleural space causing lung collapse.

33
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Describe a tension pneumothorax.

A life-threatening condition where intrapleural pressure rises, causing mediastinal shift and cardiovascular compromise.

34
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Differentiate transudative versus exudative pleural effusions.

Transudative: from systemic factors (e.g., CHF); Exudative: from local pathology (infection, malignancy).

35
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Which intercostal space and line are typical insertion sites for a chest tube draining air?

Second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line (anterior chest).

36
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What is the purpose of the water-seal chamber in a three-bottle chest drainage system?

Acts as a one-way valve allowing air/fluid to exit while preventing backflow into the pleural space.

37
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What does continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicate?

An air leak in the system or patient.

38
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Define capnometry.

Numeric measurement of the concentration or partial pressure of exhaled CO₂ (EtCO₂).

39
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What are the two common sampling methods for capnography?

Mainstream (sensor at the airway) and sidestream (gas aspirated to sensor).

40
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Identify phase III of a normal capnogram.

The alveolar plateau, representing mostly alveolar gas.

41
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How does hyperventilation affect EtCO₂?

It decreases EtCO₂ values.

42
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What capnography pattern suggests esophageal intubation?

A near-flat line with no significant CO₂ waveform.

43
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Define Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy (HBOT).

The therapeutic administration of 100% oxygen at pressures greater than atmospheric in a sealed chamber.

44
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List three accepted indications for HBOT.

Air embolism, carbon monoxide poisoning, decompression sickness (also necrotizing infections and chronic wound healing).

45
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Name two potential risks of HBOT.

Barotrauma and oxygen toxicity (others: claustrophobia, fire hazard).

46
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Which federal body regulates hyperbaric chambers in Canada?

Health Canada.

47
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List four filtration mechanisms used in respiratory filters.

Inertial impaction, diffusion, interception, and electrostatic attraction.

48
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Why might electrostatic filter performance decline in humid conditions?

Humidity reduces electrostatic charges, decreasing particle capture efficiency.

49
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State one advantage of mechanical (pleated) filters over electrostatic filters.

Consistent filtration performance regardless of humidity.

50
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When are hydrophobic filters preferred in ventilator circuits?

When moisture repulsion is needed, especially with humidified gases.

51
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What particle size range must ventilator filters effectively capture to block most bacteria?

Approximately 0.5–2.0 microns.

52
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Why are viruses harder to filter than bacteria in respiratory circuits?

Viruses are smaller (~0.02–0.3 microns) and require high-efficiency filtration mechanisms.