IFR Know All

Fixation

Applying full concentration to one single instrument

Omission

Excluding one or more instruments from scan

Emphasis

Relying on instrument that you readily understand even if it provides inadequate information

Control instruments

Attitude indicator, taachometer, manifold pressure

Performance instruments

Heading indicator, turn coordinator, airspeed indicator, turn coordinator, airspeed, altimeter, vertical speed indicator

Pitch Instruments

Airspeed, Attitude, Altimeter, VSI

Bank Instruments

Attitude, heading indicator, turn inductor

Power Instruments

Airspeed, Tachometer, Manifold Pressure

Magnetic Compoass Errors

Magnetetic Deviation

Magnetic Vartiation

Magnetic Dip

Oscillation

North & South Turning Errors

Acceleration/Deceleration Errors

Pitot Static Instruments

Airspeed, Altimeter, and Vertical Speed Indicator

Types of Airspeed

Indicated

Calibrated

Equivalent

True

Ground

Types of Altitude

Density

Absolute

True

Pressure

Indicated

Calibrated

Altimeter errors

High to low look out below

Cold to warm clear the sky

Pitot tube blockage

Ram = Airspeed drops to 0

Ram & Drain = Airspeed will act as an Altimeter

Vacuum failure

Attitude & Heading will fail

Panel lights will come on

The vacuum gauge will drop to 0

Shear drive will break

possible engine damage

Gyrospoic Instruments

Attitude, Heading, Turn

Skid

Slip

VOR

Radials in all directions

Identify with morose code.

cone of confusion

OBS must be aligned

VOTS

VOR test facility ±4

Found in chart supplement gives off 1 radial 360 from or 180 to

VOR ground checkpoint

±4

found in chart supplement

VOR Airborne checkpoint

±6

found in the chart supplement

Dual VOR check

Within 4

Using two VORs against each other

VOR check

Date

Error

Place

Signature

Distance measuring Equipment (DME)

Typically paired with VOR

It uses slant range to measure

Limited to the line of sight

will read 6000 when over the point

morse codes ins transmitted every 30 seconds

Speed is measured by how fast the signal goes from plane to station and back

Course Deviation Indicator (CDI)

Tells you how far off course you are

Each dot is 2 degrees

full scale is 10 degrees

must be half-scale deflection or less to be established

200 ft per dot per nautical mile

turn towards the needle for correction

Non-Directional Beacons

ground based receiver always paired with ADF

Reverse Sensing

Occurs when you’re flying reciprocal of intended course

Automatic Direction Finder (ADF)

Automatically & continuously displays the relative bearing from the aircraft to the station

Automatic Direction Finder use

operates off low AM frequency

ADF will point to the station no matter what

Must constantly monitor Morse code

limited to line of sight

points towards lightning because its static

deflects off mountains

If paired w/ILS its considered a compass locator

Homing

not using any wind correction only following the needle

Tracking

Using wind correction to stay on course

Instrument Landing System (ILS)

Precision appraoch with vertical and lateral guidance that can descend you down to minimums

GLAM = glideslope, localizer, approach lighting system, marker beacons

Glideslope

Provides vertical guidance Allows you to descend to your decision altitude

Localizer

Provides lateral guidance

located on the departure end of the runway

4x more sensitive than VOR

If the localizer fails, the IFR approach is not authorized

Approach lighting System (ALS)

Helps transition between instrument to visual approach

It can help in estimating flight visibility if you know the dimensions of the specific ALS configuration

Precision Approach Lighting System

Lighting starts 2400 to 3000 ft from runway

SLASR

Simplified short approach lighting system w/ runway alignment indicator lights

ALSF

Approach lighting system w/ flashing lights

MALSR

Medium-intensity approach lighting system w/ runway alignment indicator lights

Non-Precision Approach Lighting System

Lighting starts 1400 to 1500 ft from the runway

MALSF

Medium intensity approach lighting system w/ flashing lights

MEA-Minimum En-route Altitude

The lowest published altitude between radio fixes that guarantees adequate navigational signal reception and obstruction clearance of 1,000’ in non-mountainous and 2,000’ in mountainous terrain

MOCA-Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude.

Ensures reliable navigation only within 22 NM of facility and obstacle clearance

MAA-Maximum Authorized Altitude

Max usable altitude or flight level for an airspace structure or route segment for which adequate reception of navigation aid signals is assured

MRA- Minimum Reception Altitude

The lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined

MCA- Minimum Crossing Altitude

The lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher minimum en route IFR altitude

OROCA- Off Route Obstacle Clearance Altitude

Provides obstacle clearance of 1,000 and 2,000 but may not provide signal coverage from ground-based nav aids, ATC radar, or communications

MSA- Minimum Safe Altitude

Found on approach plates and provides 1000’ terrain clearance within 22NM of the airport, used for emergency purposes

What reports must always be made to ATC?

M-Missed Approach
A-Altitude Changes VFR on top
T-True Airspeed change +/- 10 knots or 5%

H-Holding: time and altitude when entering or leaving the holding fix C-Cannot maintain a 500fpm climb/descent
A-altitude and time when at holding fix or CLEARANCE LIMIT L-Leaving an assigned altitude

L-Lost comm. nav, equipment
S-Safety of flight, including un-forecasted weather

When does night time begin?

Between end of evening civil twilight and begging of morning civil twilight

When can you log night landings

Between 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise

When is an IFR rating required

In Class A airspace

Operating under IFR

Anytime the weather is beneath VFR minimums: Ceiling below 1000’ or visibility less

than 3 miles

Anytime you are operating special VFR at night

What are the recency-of-experience requirements to be PIC of a flight under IFR?

Within the preceding 6 months of the flight, 6 instrument approaches and holding procedures and intercepting and tracking courses must be completed either in actual IMC, in VMC while using a view limiting device, or in a flight simulator/FTD

Define “appropriately rated safety pilot.”

The safety pilot must possess at least a private pilot certificate with the category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft being flown and he/she must have adequate vision forward and to each side of the aircraft.

If a pilot allows his/her instrument currency to expire, what can be done to become current again?

If you fail to meet the instrument experience requirements for more than 6 months, the only way to reestablish currency is with an IPC

What aircraft/instruments/equipment are required for an IFR Flight?

Generator/alternator

Radio

Altimeter (adjustable)

Ball (inclinometer)

Clock w/ hours, minutes, and seconds

Attitude indicator

Rate of turn indicator

Directional gyro

*DME is required at or above FL240 if VOR navigation is required

What records must be kept concerning VOR checks?

Signature, location, error, date

Describe gyroscopic instruments

powered by an engine driven vacuum pump with the

exception of the turn coordinator which is electrically powered

Magnetic variation

Difference between Magnetic north and true north

Magnetic deviation

Errors produced by magnetic interference from other magnetic fields such as those caused by electrical equipment or metal structures.

Magnetic dip errors

While flying a north heading and turning to the left, the compass will initially show a turn in the opposite direction and lag behind the turn. When on a south heading, the compass will lead the turn and show that the turn is being made much faster than it is.

Norterly turn error

UNOS

Acceleration error

ANDS

What would happen if the VOR station were undergoing maintenance?

It may translate a Morse Code of TEST ( ‒ • ••• ‒ ) or the code may be removed

entirely

What does it mean if there is only a single coded identification every 30 seconds on a VORTAC station?

The VOR function is not working but the DME function is working

What are the limitations of a VOR

Line of sight

Pilot error

Cone of confusion

What are the limitations of a VOR

the actual distance between the aircraft and the ground station (as opposed to the horizontal distance).

What does RAIM stand for?

Receiver

Autonomous

Integrity

Monitoring

What is the purpose of RAIM

The purpose is to determine the accuracy or “integrity” of the GPS signal. It does this by comparing the signals from the 5 satellites.

What does FDE stand for?

Fault

Detection and

Exclusion

Purpose of FDE?

RAIM detects an error but does nothing about it except warn you. ____ is a function of some RAIM-capable GPS. It requires 6 satellites so that info from the faulty satellite can be excluded.

What does WAAS stand for?

Wide

Area

Augmentation

System

Where could you find the GPS requirements for GPS?

(AIM 1-1-17)

How do we verify that we will have RAIM during the flight?

FSS Briefers can provide RAIM predictions for a 3 hour period Alternatively, go to AUX page 3 on the GNS 430 and use the RAIM prediction tool

What are the benefits of WAAS capable GPS?

More precise than RAIM

Provides lateral and vertical navigation without the temperature errors associated with

Baro-Vnav

No RAIM prediction necessary

An airport that only has a GPS approach may be selected as an alternate

What are the visual components of the ILS?

approach lighting system, VASI/PAPI, and precision approach runway

What are the range components of the ILS?

marker beacons/compass locator and/or DME

Lateral and vertical guidance: localizer and glideslope

What is the distance threshold for the outer marker?

4-7 miles – usually at the glideslope intercept position

What is the distance threshold for the middle marker?

Middle marker: 3500’ – represents the decision altitude (200’ above TDZE)

What is the distance threshold for the inner marker?

Located between the MM and the landing threshold – represents the DH for a CAT II ILS approach

What are substitutes for an ILS outer marker?

Compass locators, DME, VOR, GPS, Precision Approach Radar (PAR), or Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR)

Where is the localizer antenna array located

The departure end of the runway aligned with the centerline

What is the course width of a localizer signal?

between 3° and 6° so that at the landing threshold, the total width is 700’

What is the sensitivity differences between the CDI tuned to a VOR and a CDI Tuned to a LOC?

Full scale deflection represents at least 10° when tuned to a VOR and only 2.5° when tuned to the localizer.

What is the usable range of the glide slope?

10 NM

Where is the glideslope equipment located?

Between 750’-1250’ from the approach end of the runway and 400-600’ to one side of the centerline

What are the dimensions of the glideslope course?

The total width is 1.4° therefore, full scale deflection represents at least .7°

What is an ILS reflection error?

Radio waves can bounce off of surface vehicles or other aircraft leading to erroneous indications

What is an ILS false course error?

Intercepting the GS at other than the published altitude can cause confusion because the GS equipment inherently produces various courses at higher vertical angles.

What is a Simplified Directional Facility (SDF)?

It provides lateral guidance similar to a localizer but is less accurate because the course is fixed to either 6° or 12°. The SDF antenna may be offset from the runway centerline but usually not by more than 3°. There is no vertical guidance.

What is a Localizer Type Directional Aid (LDA)

More precise than an SDF because the course is usually between 3°- 6° just like a localizer (hence, localizer type). An ___ may also provide a glideslope for vertical guidance in some instances. These are published as LDA/Glideslope and are characterized as APVs (approaches with vertical guidance). NOT ALIGNED WIITH THE RUNWAY

What is the minimum visibility needed to takeoff in part 91?

NONE

What are the 2 different types of departure procedures?

Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)

Standard Instrument Departure (SID)

What criteria determines that you will remain clear of obstacles when flying an ODP?

1. Cross the departure end of the runway at or above 35’ AGL

2. Make the first turn no earlier than 400’ AGL (unless otherwise specified)

3. Maintain climb gradient of at least 200fpnm (unless otherwise specified)

What is the pilot’s responsibility concerning ODPs?

1. Determine that an ____ has been published

2. Determine whether or not to fly it, even if not issued by ATC in a clearance. Pilots are encouraged to fly ____ at night, in MVFR and IFR conditions

3. Determine aircraft performance is adequate for the procedure

4. Be aware of low close-in obstacles

How would you know if an ODP has published for an airport?

The T symbol in the notes section of an IAP means that the takeoff minimums are not standard.

What are the dimensions of victor airways?

begin at 1200’ AGL and extend up to 17,999’ MSL. The width is 8nm

How does the vacuum system operate

An engine driven vacuum pump creates suction. Air is pulled through a filter and then directed to the instrument case. Rotor vanes on the gyros catch the air like a water wheel and cause it to rotate at a high speed. In the Archer IIIs, there is also an electrical vacuum pump to be used as a backup.

When navigating from VOR to VOR, when do you change frequencies to maintain Course guidance?

At that point depicted on the airway as the changeover point In the absence of a changeover point, the halfway point on the airway Whenever there is a bend in an airway