HSC 2554 Exam 1: Key Terms & Definitions (Ch 1-6)

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80 Terms

1
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A colonoscope is an instrument used to examine the rectum and the sigmoid colon.

True

2
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In which kind of medicine does the clinician make a risk/benefit/cost determination on test choice?

Evidence-based medicine

3
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Which of the following tests measure the rate at which air moves in and out of the lungs?

Pulmonary function

4
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The histologic examination of a small sample of tissue removed from the affected tissue or organ is called a biopsy.

True

5
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Normal range refers to which of the following?

Expected clinical test results

6
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A governmental agency proposes a pilot program to screen a population for a disease by using a blood test. Which of these characteristics about the disease and screening test indicate that the proposed screening is not likely to be worthwhile?

No specific method of treatment is currently available.

7
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Generally, there is no benefit to screening for a disease if no treatment is available.

True

8
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Prescribing antibiotics to a patient with an ear infection is an example of symptomatic treatment.

False

9
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False negative refers to a negative test result in a patient with the disease.

True

10
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Which of the following is a non-invasive procedure?

X-rays

11
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An organ is:

a group of different tissues integrated to perform a specific function.

12
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Fat stored in adipose tissue functions as stored energy, as well as padding and insulation.

True

13
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The normal osmolarity of blood and body fluids is 300 Osm/L. A person with severe diabetes and greatly elevated blood glucose has a blood osmolarity of 370 Osm/L. Which of the following events will result from the increased osmolarity?

Water shifts by osmosis from the cells into the extracellular fluid (ECF).

14
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Parenchyma is the total mass of functional tissue.

True

15
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Dysplasia of epithelial cells sometimes results from which of the following?

Chronic irritation or inflammation

16
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Specific types of cells often can be identified by examining structures called intermediate filaments in the cytoskeleton.

True

17
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An organ system is composed of which of the following?

A group of organs organized to perform complementary functions

18
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Paracrine and endocrine refer to types of which of the following?

Cell signaling

19
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A change from one type of cell to another type better able to tolerate adverse conditions.

Metaplasia

20
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An increase in the size of individual cells.

Hypertrophy

21
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Reduction in the size of cells in response to less favorable conditions.

Atrophy

22
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Development of a mass of abnormal cells called a tumor.

Neoplasia

23
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An increase in the size of a tissue or organ due to an increased number of cells.

Hyperplasia

24
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Programmed cell death.

Apoptosis

25
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Structural changes occurring in dead cells.

Necrosis

26
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Disturbed or abnormal development and maturation of cells.

Dysplasia

27
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Tissues that form the external covering of the body and organs that contact the external environment.

Ectoderm

28
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The collection of cells that gives rise to the distinct germ layers.

Inner Cell Mass

29
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Tissues that form inner layers of the body and linings of organs.

Endoderm

30
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Tissues used for support, motion, circulation, urination, generation.

Mesoderm

31
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Gametogenesis is the process by which gametes are formed.

True

32
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Which of the following are mature germ cells?

Gametes

33
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Any one chromosome can carry multiple alleles at a given locus.

False

34
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Which of the following is the sum total of all the genes contained in a cell's chromosomes?

Genome

35
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The constricted area where chromatids remain joined during metaphase is which of the following?

Centromere

36
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The Human Genome Project has identified all the genes on the human chromosomes and has also determined the function of each gene that has been identified.

False

37
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A pedigree gives the inheritance pattern of a family.

True

38
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A gene inherited from a female parent does not always have the same effect as the identical gene inherited from the male parent.

True

39
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Which of the following is an arrangement of chromosomes from a single cell arranged in pairs in descending order according to size of the chromosomes and the positions of the centromeres?

Karyotype

40
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Carries instructions from the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm.

Messenger RNA

41
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Picks up required amino acids from the cytoplasm and transfers them to the ribosomes for assembly.

Transfer RNA

42
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Contains a series of messages called the genetic code that regulates cell functions.

Chromosome

43
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Is the basic structural unit of DNA consisting of a phosphate group linked to a five-carbon sugar.

Nucleotide

44
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Which of the following is most likely to lead to congenital malformation or developmental disturbances in the developing fetus?

Heavy alcohol consumption during pregnancy

45
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An increased concentration of alpha fetoprotein in maternal blood or amniotic fluid suggests that a fetus has Down syndrome.

False

46
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When does reciprocal translocation occur?

When pieces of chromosomes are exchanged between two nonhomologous chromosomes

47
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Consumption of alcoholic beverages in pregnancy does not harm the fetus if the amount of alcohol consumed does not exceed 1 pint of liquor per day.

False

48
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Which of the following is a disease that is present at birth?

Congenital

49
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Nondisjunction occurs when homologous chromosomes in germ cells separate from one another in either the first or second meiotic division.

False

50
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Most persons with Turner syndrome have only a single X chromosome (45, X).

True

51
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The most common autosomal trisomy seen in newborn infants is that of chromosome 13, which causes Down syndrome.

False

52
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Which of the following syndromes is a common abnormality in females and results from an absence of one X chromosome?

Turner's

53
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A translocation is an abnormal mitosis.

False

54
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A pathogenic organism with low virulence does not produce disease in humans.

False

55
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A patient has a swollen ear caused by a bacterial infection. Which of the following is a feature of the inflammatory process? Select all that apply.

1. Redness of skin because of increased blood flow through the inflamed tissues

2. Congestion of tissues because of dilation of capillaries

3. Leakage of fluid through permeable capillaries into the loose connective tissue of the ear

56
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Innate immunity uses which of the following to respond to cell injury?

Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns and Damage Associated Molecular Patterns

57
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Which of the following is an actively phagocytic cell that is the most important cell in the acute inflammatory response?

Neutrophil

58
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Inflammation always subsides when the harmful agent that caused it is eliminated.

False

59
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Monocytes and macrophages rush to the area of cell injury at the beginning of an acute inflammation but are not active in chronic inflammation.

False

60
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Which of the following are cells that are most commonly active during chronic infections?

Lymphocytes, monocytes, and plasma cells

61
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Mediators of inflammation are biologically active compounds derived from the cells or blood plasma.

True

62
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An exudate composed of fluid containing little protein.

Serous Exudate

63
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An exudate composed largely of inflammatory cells.

purulent exudate

64
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An exudate rich in the blood protein fibrinogen.

Fibrinous exudates

65
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A yellowish exudate composed of inflammatory cells.

pus

66
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The ability of an organism to cause disease is known as

virulence

67
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Adaptive immunity includes which of the following?

Both humoral immunity and cell mediated immunity

68
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Lupus erythematosus is a common connective-tissue disease that is most frequently seen in who?

Young women

69
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Antigen presenting cells are necessary for which of the following?

1. Response to foreign antigens

2. Innate immunity

70
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Anaphylaxis is not life threatening.

False

71
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Lupus erythematosus is a type of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction.

False

72
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Cell mediated immunity is characterized by which of the following?

T lymphocytes

73
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Humoral immunity is a property of B lymphocytes that become transformed into plasma cells and produce antibodies directed against the foreign antigen that caused the immune response.

True

74
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Which of the following statements regarding antibody molecules is correct? Select all that apply.

1. An antibody molecule is composed of four polypeptide chains and is shaped somewhat like a fork.

2. The "tines of the fork" (Fab ends of the molecule) combine with the antigen.

3. The "handle of the fork" (Fc end of the molecule) determines the properties of the molecule, such as the ability to activate complement.

75
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Antigen processing cell.

Macrophage

76
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A small fragment of an antigen to which the immune system responds.

antigenic determinant

77
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Part of the antigen presenting system.

MHC complex

78
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Destroys abnormal or infected body cells.

cytotoxic T cell

79
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Regulates immune response.

helper T lymphocyte

80
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Delayed hypersensitivity is a form of _____________ immunity.

cell mediated