Final Exam UH BIOL 3301 - Genetics

You count 1000 F2 seeds from a monohybrid cross. How many seeds do you expect to display the dominant phenotype?

A) 1000

*B) 750

C) 500

D) 250

E) 0

You count 1000 F2 seeds from a monohybrid cross. How many seeds do you expect to display the recessive phenotype?

A) 1000

B) 750

C) 500

*D) 250

E) 0

In peas, axial (A) flower position is dominant to terminal (a), tall (L) is dominant to short (l), and yellow (Y) is dominant to green (y). If a plant that is heterozygous for all three traits is allowed to self-fertilize, how many of the offspring would show the dominant phenotype for all three traits?

A) 3/64

B) 9/64

*C) 27/64

D) 32/64

E) 64/64

In peas, axial (A) flower position is dominant to terminal (a), tall (L) is dominant to short (l), and yellow (Y) is dominant to green (y). If a plant that is heterozygous for all three traits is allowed to self-fertilize, how many of the offspring will be axial, short, and yellow?

*A) 3/64

B) 9/64

C) 27/64

D) 32/64

E) 64/64

In peas, axial (A) flower position is dominant to terminal (a), tall (L) is dominant to short (l), and yellow (Y) is dominant to green (y). If a plant that is heterozygous for all three traits is allowed to self-fertilize, how many of the offspring will be axial, tall, and yellow?

A) 3/64

*B) 9/64

C) 27/64

D) 32/64

E) 64/64

The gene L determines hair length in rabbits. The gene B determines hair color. A rabbit with long, black hair is crossed to a rabbit with short, white hair. All the offspring have long, black hair. What are the genotypes of the parents?

*A) LLBB × llbb

B) LlBb × LlBb

C) LlBb × llbb

D) Llbb × llBb

E) Impossible to determine from the information given

The gene L determines hair length in rabbits. The gene B determines hair color. A rabbit with long, black hair is crossed to a rabbit with short, white hair. Half the offspring have long, black hair and half have short, white hair. What are the genotypes of the parents?

A) LLBB × llbb

B) LlBb × LlBb

*C) LlBb × llbb

D) Llbb × llBb

E) Impossible to determine from the information given

The gene L determines hair length in rabbits. The gene B determines hair color. A rabbit with short, black hair is crossed to a rabbit with long, white hair. All the offspring have long, black hair. What are the genotypes of the parents?

A) LLBB × llbb

*B) llBB × LLbb

C) LlBb × llbb

D) Llbb × llBb

E) Impossible to determine from the information given

In the accompanying figure, the chance that individual IV-7 is a heterozygous carrier is ________.

A) 1/4

B) 1/3

C) 1/2

*D) 2/3

E) 3/4

In the accompanying figure, the chance that individual IV-7 is NOT a heterozygous carrier is ________.

A) 1/4

*B) 1/3

C) 1/2

D) 2/3

E) 3/4

A geneticist is investigating the inheritance of two autosomal recessive genes in mice, one for obesity (LEP) and another for autism (oprm1). The table below provides the number of offspring observed, for each phenotype, when dihybrid mice are crossed:

Phenotype. Observed

wild-type. 154

obese 69

autistic 58

obese, autistic 23

What is the Chi-square value for this cross?

What is the probability that the observed deviation from the expected is caused by chance?

*a) 5.08

b) 0.34

c) 121.9

d) 0.05

*a) larger than 0.5 - conclude that differences are caused by chance

b) larger than 0.5 - conclude that differences are significant and not by chance

c) smaller than the 0.05 cutoff for significance

Mitosis is a process of cell division that results in ________.

A) two unique daughter cells

B) four unique daughter cells

*C) two identical daughter cells

D) three identical daughter cells

E) four identical daughter cells

Meiosis is a process of cell division that results in ________.

A) two unique daughter cells

*B) four unique daughter cells

C) two identical daughter cells

D) three identical daughter cells

E) four identical daughter cells

Certain kinds of cells (e.g., some cells in the eyes and bones) mature and differentiate into a state in which they have a specialized function but do not divide or progress through the cell cycle. These cells are "stuck" in which stage?

A) M phase

B) G1

C) G2

D) S

*E) G0

Vinblastine is a commonly used chemotherapy drug that acts by interfering with the assembly of microtubules. How does it likely target cancer cells?

A) by suppressing cyclins

B) by inhibiting protein kinases

C) by inhibiting DNA synthesis

D) by denaturing myosin and preventing the cleavage furrow from forming

*E) by disrupting mitotic spindle formation

A dihybrid has the genotype AaBb. The diagram depicts the chromosome composition of different cells from the animal. Which of the cells could represent a mature gamete?

*A) Cell G

B) Cell H

C) Cell K

D) Cell M

E) Cell P

Crossing white-eyed male Drosophila to red-eyed females produces all red-eyed F1 offspring, but the one half of the males in the F2 generation are white-eyed. What concept best

explains this observation of eye color?

A) autosomal dominance

B) random mutation

C) crossing over

D) independent assortment *E) X-linked inheritance

Red-green color blindness is an X-linked recessive disorder. A woman with normal vision whose father was colorblind has children with a man with normal color vision. What is the probability that their first child will be colorblind?

*A) 1/4

B) 1/2

C) 3/4

D) 0

Which mode of inheritance results in both alleles being detected equally in the heterozygous phenotype?

A) complete dominance

B) incomplete dominance

*C) codominance

D) epistasis

E) incomplete penetrance

Two proteins interact to form a multimeric complex. When one of the proteins is mutated, there is a substantial loss of functional activity in the multimeric protein. This type of mutation is classified as ________.

A) null/ amorphic

B) hypomorphic

C) hypermorphic

D) neomorphic

*E) dominant negative

You discover a new allele of a gene important for tail formation in mice. WT mice have long tails, but mice heterozygous for the allele have short tails. When you cross two heterozygous mice together, you obtain a 2:1 ratio of short-tailed mice to long-tailed mice. None of the short- tailed progeny are homozygous. What type of allele results in short tails?

A) dominant negative allele

B) temperature-sensitive allele

*C) lethal allele

D) partially dominant allele

E) incompletely penetrant allele

Brachydactyly type D is human autosomal dominant condition in which the thumbs are abnormally short and broad. In most cases, both thumbs are affected, but occasionally just one thumb is involved. The pedigree above shows a family in which brachydactlyly type D is segregating. Filled circles and squares represent females and males who have involvement of both thumbs. Half-filled in symbols represent family members with just one thumb affected?

(image)

There is evidence of variable expressivity and incomplete penetrance in this family. Which individual is most likely nonpenetrant for the trait?

There is evidence of variable expressivity and incomplete penetrance in this family. Which individual is most likely nonpenetrant for the trait?

A) III-11

B) IV-1

C) IV-5

*D) III-10

E) II-4

A) III-11

B) IV-1

C) IV-5

*D) III-5

E) II-4

Genes B and R are part of a flower color pathway, and b and r are recessive mutations of each gene. Wild-type plants have purple flowers because the B gene product produces a blue pigment, and the R product converts that blue pigment into purple. Homozygotes for the b mutation have white flowers regardless of their genotype at the R gene. Homozygotes for the r allele have blue flowers if they have a wild-type copy of B. Double homozygotes for b and r have white flowers. If you cross BbRr heterozygotes, what ratio of purple:blue:white flowers do you expect in the progeny?

*a) 9:3:4

b) 9:6:1

c) 13:2:1

d) 12:3:1

e) 1:1:1

a) 9:3:3:1

b) 9:6:1

c) 13:2:1

*d) 9:3:4

e) 1:1:1

Complementation tests of distinct recessive mutants, 1 through 8, produce the data in the matrix below. A plus (+) indicates complementation, meaning the phenotype of the combined alleles is wild type, and a minus (-) indicates a failure to complement meaning that a mutant phenotype results. Assume that the missing mutant combinations would yield data consistent with the entries that are shown.

(image)

How many complementation groups are formed by these eight mutants?

A) 2

*B) 3

C) 4

D) 5

E) 6

A cell or organism in which all copies of the cytoplasmic organelle gene are the same is said to be ________.

A cell or organism in which some copies of the cytoplasmic organelle gene are mutated and some are wild-type is said to be ________.

A) homozygous

B) heteroplasmic

*C) homoplasmic

D) variegated

E) uniparental

A) homozygous

*B) heteroplasmic

C) homoplasmic

D) variegated

E) uniparental

All of the following are evidence in support of the endosymbiotic origin of mitochondria, except?

A) Mitochondria maintain their own DNA.

*B) Yeast cells can live without mitochondria.

C) Mitochondiral genetic codes (codons) are related to each other across phyla, and are distinct from nuclear genetic codes.

D) Transcription in mitochondria is performed by an enzyme similar to bacterial RNA polymerase.

E) Mitochondria have a double membrane.

Leigh's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that is caused by a mutation in a mitochondrial gene, and it often results in childhood death. However, mothers who appear wild- type can have children with the disorder. Which of the following best explains this phenomenon?

*a) The mothers have mitochondria with wild-type copies of the gene and mitochondria with mutant alleles.

b) The disease in those children must be caused by mutations in nuclear genes.

c) Only the environment causes Leigh's disease in those children.

d) The mothers and children must have only wild-type copies of the mitochondrial gene.

e) All of the above explain the phenomenon equally well.

21) Syntenic genes can assort independently when ________.

A) they are very close together on a chromosome

B) they are located on different chromosomes

C) crossing over occurs rarely between the genes

*D) they are far apart on a chromosome and crossing over occurs frequently between the genes E) they are far apart on a chromosome and crossing over occurs very rarely between the genes

Syntenic genes cannot assort independently when ________.

*A) they are very close together on a chromosome

B) they are located on different chromosomes

C) crossing over occurs frequently between the genes

D) they are far apart on a chromosome and crossing over occurs frequently between the genes E) they are far apart on a chromosome and crossing over occurs very rarely between the genes

In sweet peas, the genes for flower color and pollen grain shape are 11 cM apart. A pure- breeding purple flowering plant with round pollen grains is crossed to a pure-breeding red flowering plant with long pollen grains. The resulting F1 offspring are all purple flowering plants with long pollen grains. What percent of offspring from a test cross analysis of the F1 individuals would you expect to be red flowering plants with long pollen grains?

What percent of offspring from a test cross analysis of the F1 individuals would you expect to be purple flowering plants with long pollen grains?

*A) 44.5

B) 11

C) 5.5

D) 89

E) 39

A) 44.5

B) 11

*C) 5.5

D) 89

E) 39

A geneticist is mapping the chromosomes of the newly captured gremlin. Stripe is heterozygous for three linked genes with alleles Ee, Hh, and Bb, that determine if gremlins are evil (E), have hair (H), and biting teeth (B). In order to determine if the three genes are linked, a standard testcross was done, and the 1000 offspring had the following genotypes:

48 eHb

36 ehB

400 eHB

4 EHB

426 Ehb

46 EhB

38 EHb

2 ehb

What is the recombination frequency between genes E and H?

What is the recombination frequency between genes E and B?

*A) 8%

B) 92%

C) 7.4%

D) 8.4%

E) 40%

A) 9.4%

*B) 10.0%

C) 9.0%

D) 8.4%

E) 42.6%

A geneticist is mapping the chromosomes of the newly captured gremlin. Stripe is heterozygous for three linked genes with alleles Ee, Hh, and Bb, that determine if gremlins are evil (E), have hair (H), and biting teeth (B). In order to determine if the three genes are linked, a standard testcross was done, and the 1000 offspring had the following genotypes:

48 eHb

36 ehB

400 eHB

4 EHB

426 Ehb

46 EhB

38 EHb

2 ehb

What is the gene order?

a) E-B-H

*b) H-E-B

c) E-H-B

Gene A has seven alleles (A1, A2, A3, A4, A5, A6, and A7). Members of a family have a disease that is caused by a genetic mutation in another gene. In the pedigree below, the genotype at the A gene is given for each individual, and the disease phenotype is indicated by black shading.

(image)

Select the statement below that is most consistent with the pedigree.

a) Allele A1 co-segregates with the disease causing mutation.

b) Allele A2 co-segregates with the disease causing mutation.

*c) Allele A3 co-segregates with the disease causing mutation.

d) Allele A4 co-segregates with the disease causing mutation.

e) Gene A is not genetically linked to the disease causing mutation.

Which of the following is FALSE regarding human multifactorial traits?

A) They are influenced by genetic and environmental factors.

B) Their phenotype can be maximized by environmental factors to reach a genetic potential.

C) They are influenced by multiple genes.

*D) They usually exhibit discontinuous variation.

E) They are usually quantitative rather than qualitative.

How many distinct phenotypic categories should be observed for a polygenic trait in humans that results from segregation of additive alleles for 10 genes?

How many distinct phenotypic categories should be observed for a polygenic trait in humans that results from segregation of additive alleles for 8 genes?

How many distinct phenotypic categories should be observed for a polygenic trait in humans that results from segregation of additive alleles for 11 genes?

*A) 21

B) 20

C) 10

D) 5

E) 4

A) 21

B) 16

*C) 17

D) 5

E) 4

A) 22

*B) 23

C) 10

D) 5

E) 4

Pigmentation is determined by the number of "1" alleles. If A1A2B1B2C1C2 is selfed, what fraction of the F2 will display the darkest pigmentation?

*a) 1/64

b) 1/8

c) 20/64

d) 1/3

A scientist is studying insect wing length. An individual from a pure-breeding parental line (P1), for which the VP is 40 mm2, is mated with an individual from a pure-breeding parental line (P2), for which the VP is 80 mm2. This results in F1 progeny that have a VP of 54 mm2. A cross

between two F1 progeny results in offspring with a VP of 92 mm. What is the genotypic

A) 14 mm

B) 32 mm

C) 34 mm

*D) 38 mm

E) 58 mm

A scientist is studying insect wing length. An individual from a pure-breeding parental line (P1), for which the VP is 40 mm2, is mated with an individual from a pure-breeding parental line (P2), for which the VP is 80 mm2. This results in F1 progeny that have a VP of 59 mm2. A cross between two F1 progeny results in offspring with a VP of 88 mm2. What is the genotypic

A) 14 mm

*B) 29 mm

C) 34 mm

D) 21 mm

E) 58 mm

The brain mass in a population of mice has a phenotypic variance of 0.56 g2 and an environmental variance of 0.14 g2. What is the broad sense heritability (H2)?

The brain mass in a population of mice has a phenotypic variance of 0.68 g2 and an

environmental variance of 0.23 g2. What is the broad sense heritability (H2)?

A) 0.25

B) 0.42

*C) 0.75

D) 1.54

E) The broad sense heritability cannot be calculated with the data provided

A) 0.25

*B) 0.66

C) 0.71

D) 1

E) The broad sense heritability cannot be calculated with the data provided

For the following traits, the concordances of MZ and DZ twins are given as percentages. Which trait is unlikely to have a strong genetic influence?

a) #1

b) #2

*c) #3

d) #4

e) #5

For the following traits, the concordances of MZ and DZ twins are given as percentages. Which trait is likely to have a strong genetic influence?

a) #1

b) #2

c) #3

*d) #4

e) #5

Which of the following is true?

*A) GWAS can scan the entire genome for QTLs by statistically testing for marker variants.

B) QTL mapping approaches can analyze organisms in random mating populations.

C) GWAS requires controlled crosses and the formation of introgression lines.

D) QTL mapping can directly identify the gene responsible for the associated phenotypic variation.

E) GWAS is able to determine a single gene that plays the sole role in the development of Crohn's disease.

A population has two alleles at a single gene. Which of the following is least likely to lead to a change in allele frequencies?

A. Natural selection in favor of one homozygote

B. Genetic drift

*C. Inbreeding

D. All of the above are equally likely to change allele frequencies

E. None of the above will change allele frequencies

Gene A has two alleles (A1 and A2). A1A1 homozygotes are twice as likely to survive from birth to reproductive age as heterozygotes or A2A2 homozygotes (w11=1, w12=0.5, w22=0.5). A population starts with 40 individuals of each genotype allowed

to mate at random. Their progeny then survive according to the fitness values given above. What will be the allele frequencies in those progeny when they reach

reproductive age?

A. 0.40 A1, 0.60 A2 B. 0.50 A1, 0.50 A2 *C. 0.60 A1, 0.40 A2 D. 0.80 A1, 0.20 A2 E. All A1

The incidence of Tay Sachs, an autosomal recessive genetic disorder, is approximately 1 in 3,500 in a certain population of Ashkenazi Jews. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the frequency of carriers for the Tay Sachs allele in this population?

A) 1.5%

B) 1.7%

C) 2.9%

*D) 3.3%

E) 98.5%

The incidence of Tay Sachs, an autosomal recessive genetic disorder, is approximately 1 in 2,500 in a certain population of Ashkenazi Jews. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the frequency of carriers for the Tay Sachs allele in this population?

A) 1.5%

*B) 3.9%

C) 1.7%

D) 2.9%

E) 98.5%

In a group of 500 people, the frequency of genotype NN is 40%. Assuming both autosomal inheritance and that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, how many individuals would you expect to have the MN genotype?

In a group of 500 people, the frequency of genotype NN is 30%. Assuming both autosomal inheritance and that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, how many individuals would you expect to have the MN genotype?

A) 68

*B) 232

C) 300

D) 190

E) 258

A) 68

B) 300

C) 190

D) 258

*E) 247

A researcher is studying a newly discovered gene that causes increased body weight in domesticated chickens. In a mainland population, the frequency of the A1 allele is 0.2, for this gene with two alleles. If 100 of these mainland chicken are transported on a ship to an isolated island with a population of 200 A1A1 chickens, 400 A1A2 chickens, and 400 A2A2 chickens, what would the frequency of the A1 allele in the admixed population?

A) 0.745

B) 0.618

*C) 0.382

D) 0.764

E) 0.236

A researcher is studying a newly discovered gene that causes increased body weight in domesticated chickens. In a mainland population, the frequency of the A1 allele is 0.3, for this gene with two alleles. If 100 of these mainland chicken are transported on a ship to an isolated island with a population of 200 A1A1 chickens, 400 A1A2 chickens, and 400 A2A2 chickens, what would the frequency of the A1 allele in the admixed population?

*A) 0.391

B) 0.745

C) 0.618

D) 0.764

E) 0.236

Given the following pedigree, what is the coefficient of inbreeding for individual G?

(image)

A) 1/4 B) 1/8 *C) 1/16 D) 1/32 E) 1/64

A scientist is researching oil content of seeds from a new plant species named R. tificial. She

has determined the narrow sense heritability (h2) is 0.80. She mates plants with an average seed oil content of 32%. If the response to selection (R) was 16%, what is the estimated average oil content of seeds in the entire lab population?

*A) 12%

B) 20%

C) 32%

D) 44%

E) 50%

Avery, Macleod, and McCarty expanded on Griffith's experiment to prove that DNA is the hereditary molecule required for transformation. What treatment of the heat-killed SIII bacteria extract resulted in the mouse LIVING?

A) Destruction of type SIII lipids and polysaccharides

*B) Destruction of type SIII DNA with DNase

C) Destruction of type SIII RNA with RNase

D) Destruction of type SIII proteins with protease

E) Use of the control group (null treatment), in which all components are intact

Which of the following are classified as pyrimidines?

A) adenine and thymine

B) guanine and cytosine

C) adenine and guanine

*D) thymine and cytosine E) adenine and uracil

Which of the following are classified as purines?

A) adenine and thymine

B) guanine and cytosine

*C) adenine and guanine

D) thymine and cytosine E) adenine and uracil

What type of bond is formed between the hydroxyl group of one nucleotide and the phosphate group of an adjacent nucleotide, forming the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA?

A) glycosidic bond

*B) phosphodiester bond

C) ester linkage

D) hydrogen bond

E) ionic bond

What types of bonds are formed between complementary DNA bases?

A) glycosidic bonds

B) phosphodiester bonds

C) covalent bonds

*D) hydrogen bonds

E) ionic bonds

A portion of one strand of DNA has the sequence 5′ AATGGCTTA 3′. If this strand is used as a template for DNA replication, which of the following correctly depicts the sequence of the newly synthesized strand in the direction in which it will be synthesized?

*A) 3′ TTACCGAAT 5′

B) 5′ TAAGCCATT 3′

C) 3′ AATGGCTTA 5′

D) 5′ AATGGCTTA 3′

E) 5′ TTACCGAAT 3′

Based on the following replication bubble, which of these statements is true?

(image)

leading strands = closer to 5'

lagging stands = closer to 3'

A) X and Y are leading strands, W and Z are lagging strands

B) X and Z are leading strands, W and Y are lagging strands

C) X and W are leading strands, Y and Z are lagging strands

D) W and Z are leading strands, X and Y are lagging strands

*E) W and Y are leading strands, X and Z are lagging strands

Why are telomeres problematic for eukaryotic chromosome replication?

A) They are highly repetitive and thus hard to replicate correctly.

B) Telomerase is more error-prone than the normal DNA Polymerase.

C) The T loop blocks formation of primers on the lagging strand.

*D) Removal of the lagging strand primer leaves a gap in the one of the strand's DNA sequences.

E) Maintaining very long telomeres promotes cancer cell formation.

What is the name of the element labeled #2

A) Leading strand

B) Primase

C) Okazaki fragment

*D) RNA primer E) Helicase

What is the name of the element labeled #4?

A) Leading strand

B) Topoisomerase

*C) Okazaki fragment

D) RNA primer

E) Helicase

What is the name of the element labeled #5?

*A) Leading strand

B) Topoisomerase

C) Okazaki fragment

D) RNA primer

E) Helicase

What is the name of the protein labeled #3?

A) DNA polymerase I

B) RNA primase

C) Topoisomerase

*D) DNA polymerase III

E) Helicase

What is the name of the protein labeled #1?

A) DNA polymerase I

*B) RNA primase

C) Topoisomerase

D) DNA polymerase III

E) Helicase

What is the name of the protein labeled #6?

A) DNA polymerase I

B) RNA primase

C) Topoisomerase

D) DNA polymerase III

*E) Ligase

The dark banding pattern on a chromosome represent

A) euchromatin

*B) heterochromatin

C) transposed elements

D) GC rich regions

Which type of chromosome has no p arms?

A) metacentric

B) submetacentric

C) acrocentric

D) subacrocentric

*E) telocentric

What technique would you use to detect a target sequence in an intact chromosome using a labeled molecular probe?

A) polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

*B) fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)

C) western/immuno blotting

D) DNA sequencing

E) karyotyping

Which of the following is true of the gametes of a human female who has nondisjunction of

her X chromosomes in meiosis I?

A) All the gametes contain 23 chromosomes.

B) All the gametes contain 22 chromosomes.

C) All the gametes contain 24 chromosomes.

*D) The gametes contain 22 or 24 chromosomes.

E) The gametes contain 22, 23, or 24 chromosomes.

What is uniparental disomy?

*A) When both chromosomes in a diploid organism come from one parent

B) When each chromosome in a diploid organism comes from each parent

C) When a diploid organism has three copies of a chromosome

D) When a diploid organism has only one copy of a chromosome

E) None of the above

Which of the following is true regarding heterozygous carriers of large chromosome inversions or translocations?

A) They should be completely fertile because no genes were deleted.

B) They commonly exhibit phenotypic abnormalities.

*C) They typically have a reduction in the number of viable gametes.

D) Inversion heterozygotes will only produce viable gametes if they have a paracentric inversion, but not a pericentric inversion.

E) Translocation heterozygotes will produce viable gametes regardless of the pattern of segregation of the involved chromosomes.

A chromosome contains the following gene order:

ABCD • EFGH

Which of the following rearrangements represents a pericentric inversion?

A) A B C D • E F G H

B) A B C D • E H G F

C) A F G H B C D • E

D) A C B D • E F G H

*E) A F E • D C B G H

A chromosome contains the following gene order:

ABCD EFGH

Which of the following rearrangements represents a paracentric inversion?

A) A F E • D C B G H

B) A B C E • D F G H

*C) A C B D • E F G H

D) A B C D • E F G H

An acentric chromosome fragment is produced by recombination between a rearranged and normal homolog in which of the following?

A) partial chromosome duplication

*B) paracentric inversion

C) pericentric inversion

D) reciprocal translocation

A diploid organism with a genome size of n = 23 experienced a Robertsonian translocation. How many chromosomes would you expect to see in the karyotype of a somatic cell in an affected individual?

A) 21

B) 25

C) 42

*D) 44

E) 46

In balanced translocation heterozygotes, viable gametes and progeny are produced by which pattern(s) of chromosome segregation?

A) adjacent-1 segregation

B) adjacent-2 segregation

*C) alternate segregation

D) both adjacent-1 and alternate segregation

E) all three patterns of segregation (adjacent-1, adjacent-2, and alternate)

Which of the following correctly lists the levels of compaction in eukaryotes from naked DNA to the most compact?

A) solenoid, nucleosome, looped chromatin (300-nm fiber), metaphase chromosome

B) solenoid, metaphase chromosome, nucleosome, looped chromatin (300-nm fiber)

C) metaphase chromosome, nucleosome, solenoid, looped chromatin (300-nm fiber)

*D) nucleosome, solenoid, looped chromatin (300-nm fiber), metaphase chromosome

E) nucleosome, looped chromatin (300-nm fiber), metaphase chromosome, solenoid

The flies with variegated eye color had what abnormal chromosome structure?

*A) X-chromosome inversion that moves the w+ gene to a different orientation on the chromosome in some cells following X-ray exposure

B) X-chromosome translocation that moves the w+ gene to a region of heterochromatin on another chromosome in some cells following X-ray exposure

C) a mutation in the w+ gene following X-ray exposure that causes the gene to be overexpressed in a tissue-specific manner

D) X-chromosome deletion that deleted the w+ gene in some cells following X-ray exposure

E) a mutation in a somatic chromosome that causes the w+ gene to be translocated to the X- chromosomes following X-ray exposure

What is the effect of Histone modification (acetylation/methylation) on gene expression?

A) Methylation and Acetylation both lead to increased gene expression

B) Methylation and Acetylation both lead to decreased gene expression

*C) Methylation = decreased gene expression, Acetylation = increased gene expression

D) Methylation = increased gene expression, Acetylation = decreased gene expression

How are histones assembled after DNA replication?

A) 'old' histones are degraded and only 'new' histones are assembled on the newly repllcated DNA

*B) A combination of 'old' and 'new' histones reassemble themselves on the newly replicated DNA

C) 'old' histones are assembled on one of the new DNA helixes while the other does not gain and new histones

D) None of the above

What is the order in which posttranslational processing occurs?

A) Intron splicing, 5' cap addition, addition of poly-a tail, exit from the nucleus to the cytoplasm

B) Exit from the nucleus to the cytoplasm, 5' cap addition, intron splicing, addition of poly-a tail

C) Addition of poly-a tail, exit from the nucleus to the cytoplasm, intron splicing, 5' cap addition

*D) 5' cap addition, intron splicing, addition of poly-a tail, exit from the nucleus to the cytoplasm

Answer the following questions using the image below which represents the basic structure of a gene: The promoter, which is labeled with the #____ , is normally _________ of the sequence to be translated. For this gene the coding strand is labeled with the #____ , and the template strand is labeled #____ .

(IMAGE)

A) #1, upstream, #4, #5

B) #2, upstream, #5, #4

C) #3, downstream, #5, #4

D) #3, upstream, #4, #5

*E) #3, upstream, #5, #4

What are two distinguishing features of RNA?

*A) RNA has a ribose sugar and uracil nitrogenous base.

B) RNA contains a methylated form of thymine.

C) RNA forms a double helix of reverse complementary strands.

D) RNA contains a pyrophosphate group bound to the ribose.

E) RNA contains phophodiester bonds as part of its sugar backbone.

Which promoter element is most commonly found in Eukaryotes?

A) Pribnow box

B) CAAT box

C) GC box

*D) TATA box

What must eukaryotes do to initiate transcription of a gene?

A) Open the DNA template and then bind RNA Polymerase at the transcriptional initiation site.

*B) Recruit the transcription factors and RNA Polymerase that compose the pre-initiation complex.

C) Recruit general transcription factors to produce an open complex and then recruit RNA Polymerase.

D) Bind RNA Polymerase to displace histone proteins that binding DNA in the promoter region.

E) Bind transcription factors from enhancer sequences to the RNA Polymerase.

What is the general name for the components of the spliceosome, which removes introns from mRNAs?

A) lariat intronic nucleolar proteins

B) branch point adenine recognition proteins

*C) small nuclear ribonucleoproteins

D) microRNA activators

E) small interfering RNA enhancers

What is the purpose of alternative splicing in eukaryotic cells?

A) Increase the number of genes that do not have to contain introns.

B) Improve the efficiency of transcription and translation.

C) Produce multiple types of tRNAs that can bind to different codons.

D) Regulate the quantity of any single protein being produced in the cell.

*E) Produce multiple polypeptide sequences from a single primary transcript.

Which of the statements concerning transcription in Prokaryotes vs Eukaryotes is TRUE?

A) Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription initiation is started by the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter region

*B) Prokaryotic transcription involves a single RNA polymerase with different subunits while eukaryotes have multiple RNA polymerases

C) Promoter sequences in prokaryotes are more diverse than those in prokaryotes

D) Prokaryotic DNA is densely packed therefore General Transcription Factors are necessary for transcription initiation

What is the sequence of this DNA strand after sanger sequencing?

*A) TACTGATGCGATGCTAAGC

B) CGAATCGTAGCGTAGTCAT

C) GGGGGCCCCTTTTTAAAAA

D) None of the above

(always read from + to - )

Which of these statements concerning siRNA and miRNA processing is FALSE?

A) Both siRNA and miRNA are recognized and processed by Dicer

B) siRNA is produced in response to "intruder DNA"

*C) siRNA and miRNA begin as a double-stranded RNA

D) Both siRNA and miRNA activate the RISC complex

How does miRNA complementarity affect its function on target molecules?

A) Partial complementation = mRNA cleavage, Near-perfect complementation = translation inhibition

B) Any form of complementation results in mRNA cleavage

*C) Partial complementation = translation inhibition, Near-perfect complementation = mRNA cleavage

D) Any form of complementation results in translation inhibition

Alternative splicing can process the same pre-mRNA into different forms of mRNA. Which one of the following reasons best explains why this pre-mRNA can't be processed into a mRNA containing only (Exon 1-Intron A-Exon 3)?

(Image)

*A) The spliceosome can not excise RNA sequences bounded by two 3' splice sites.

B) The spliceosome can not excise RNA sequences bounded by two 5' splice sites.

C) The spliceosome can not excise RNA sequences bounded by an upstream 3' splice site and a downstream 5' splice site.

C) The spliceosome can not excise RNA sequences bounded by an upstream 5' splice site and a downstream 3' splice site.

Which level of protein structure is stabilized by hydrogen bonds between groups along the polypeptide backbone?

a) primary

*b) secondary

c) tertiary

d) quaternary

What is the function of the Shine-Dalgarno sequence?

a) specification of the transcriptional initiation site in bacteria

*b) specification of the authentic start codon in bacterial mRNA

c) specification of the authentic start codon in eukaryotic mRNA

d) None of the above

How does the eukaryotic initiation complex locate the correct start codon?

a) The true start codon is the first ATG encountered downstream of the Shine-Dalgarno sequence.

*b) The initiation complex moves the small ribosomal subunit through the 5ʹ UTR, scanning for the start AUG.

c) The correct start codon is the first ATG encountered downstream of the Kozak sequence.

d) The correct start codon is the formyl-ATG, which will encode for fMet in the protein.

Which of the following complexes bind to an open A-site in the process of translational elongation?

a) charged tRNA

b) charged tRNA+GTP

c) charged tRNA+elongation factor

*d) charged tRNA+elongation factor+GTP

Which of the following base-pair interactions would not occur due to wobble?

a) G-U

b) A-C

c) U-A

*d) U-C

A tRNA in the P site of the ribosome will enter the ________ site after translocation of the ribosome.

*a) E

b) A

c) 3ʹ

d) 5ʹ

e) initiation

The beginning of a protein coding gene corresponds to what part of the translated protein?

*a) The amino terminal end.

b) The carboxyl terminal end.

c) Depends on whether it is a prokaryotic or eukaryotic gene.

d) The stop codon.

Given the following mRNA sequence, what is the amino acid sequence for the corresponding polypeptide?

5ʹ - AUG CGA UUU GGG UGC UAG - 3ʹ

a) 5ʹ-Met-Arg-Phe-Gly-Stop-3ʹ

b) C-Met-Arg-Leu-Glu-Cys-N

*c) N-Met-Arg-Phe-Gly-Cys-Stop-C

d) N-Met-Asp-Phe-Gly-Trp-C

e) N-Arg-Phe-Gly-Stop-C