Chapter 17 Integrating Networked Devices

What does IoT (Internet of Things) refer to?
A) Devices that connect only through wired LAN
B) Devices that connect directly to internet resources and can be remotely controlled
C) A type of VPN technology
D) A new wireless encryption method

B — Devices that connect directly to internet resources and can be remotely controlled

Which of the following is an example of a personal IoT device?
A) Firewall appliance
B) Smart refrigerator
C) Router
D) Ethernet switch

B — Smart refrigerator

What wireless standard is most commonly used to connect IoT devices in homes and enterprises?
A) 802.1X
B) 802.3at
C) 802.11 (Wi-Fi)
D) 802.15.1 (Bluetooth)

C — 802.11 (Wi-Fi)

What is one method to harden IoT devices like smart cameras?
A) Always broadcast the default SSID
B) Use a short, simple passphrase
C) Place devices in a separate SSID or VLAN
D) Disable firmware updates

C — Place devices in a separate SSID or VLAN

What was IoT’s updated Wi-Fi standard developed with IoT in mind?
A) Wi-Fi 4
B) Wi-Fi 5
C) Wi-Fi 6
D) Wi-Fi Direct

C — Wi-Fi 6

Which technology is a core component of Industrial IoT (IIoT)?
A) Cyber-physical systems and cloud computing
B) NAT and DHCP
C) ARP and ICMP
D) VLANs and SSIDs

A — Cyber-physical systems and cloud computing

What is a recommended first step to secure IoT devices in a home network?
A) Use the default SSID and password
B) Place devices on a separate SSID
C) Disable encryption entirely
D) Connect all devices to the main network

B — Place devices on a separate SSID

Why should IoT devices use a separate VLAN for sensitive data like camera feeds?
A) To improve wireless speed
B) To isolate traffic and enhance security
C) To reduce device power consumption
D) To enable auto-firmware updates

B — To isolate traffic and enhance security

What is the purpose of using a strong PSK (Pre-Shared Key) for IoT devices?
A) To increase data storage
B) To prevent unauthorized access
C) To reduce network latency
D) To enable cloud computing

B — To prevent unauthorized access

Card 4
Which practice is crucial for maintaining IoT device security?
A) Routine firmware updates from the manufacturer
B) Leaving default usernames active
C) Broadcasting the device’s SSID publicly
D) Using weak passwords for convenience

A — Routine firmware updates from the manufacturer

How can access to IoT devices like cameras be restricted?
A) By using username ACLs (Access Control Lists)
B) By sharing passwords with everyone in the network
C) By disabling encryption
D) By removing VLAN segmentation

A — By using username ACLs (Access Control Lists)

Why is hardening IoT devices particularly important?
A) Because they are always offline
B) Because IoT devices often contain sensitive data and are vulnerable over the internet
C) Because IoT devices don’t need power
D) Because IoT devices cannot connect to cloud servers

B — Because IoT devices often contain sensitive data and are vulnerable over the internet

What is the primary purpose of an Industrial Control System (ICS)?
A) To create software applications
B) To automate and monitor industrial processes
C) To store large amounts of data
D) To provide internet connectivity

B — To automate and monitor industrial processes

In an ICS, what is the function of sensors?
A) To process data and run programs
B) To monitor conditions like temperature or fluid levels
C) To control human operators
D) To store historical data

B — To monitor conditions like temperature or fluid levels

What role do actuators play in an ICS?
A) They store backup data
B) They execute actions like turning on a pump or motor based on sensor input
C) They provide user interfaces
D) They monitor network traffic

B — They execute actions like turning on a pump or motor based on sensor input

What is a Human Machine Interface (HMI) used for in ICS/DCS?
A) To connect remote terminals to the internet
B) To allow humans to monitor and control the process
C) To store sensor data
D) To act as a programmable logic controller

B — To allow humans to monitor and control the process

How does a Distributed Control System (DCS) differ from a basic ICS?
A) DCS systems are only analog, not digital
B) DCS can manage multiple interconnected processes across a hierarchy
C) DCS systems require no human monitoring
D) DCS cannot use programmable logic controllers

B — DCS can manage multiple interconnected processes across a hierarchy

What is SCADA, and how does it differ from ICS?
A) SCADA is used for small, single-location systems only
B) SCADA allows remote monitoring and control over long distances with more autonomous RTUs
C) SCADA replaces sensors with cloud storage
D) SCADA is a type of home automation system

B — SCADA allows remote monitoring and control over long distances with more autonomous RTUs

What is a Programmable Logic Controller (PLC) in an ICS/DCS system?
A) A storage device for sensor data
B) A specialized computer that controls processes, usually headless with its own OS
C) A human-operated interface for monitoring
D) A wireless communication device

B — A specialized computer that controls processes, usually headless with its own OS

What is a Remote Terminal Unit (RTU) in SCADA systems?
A) A standard PC used for spreadsheets
B) A more autonomous PLC designed for remote operations
C) A device to manage WiFi connections
D) A backup server for HMI data

B — A more autonomous PLC designed for remote operations

What are the two main types of risks assessed in network operations?
A) Hardware risks and software risks
B) Security risks and business risks
C) User risks and compliance risks
D) Network risks and financial risks

B — Security risks and business risks

Why is documentation important in network operations?
A) It allows employees to skip training
B) It protects both the network and the organization by outlining policies and procedures
C) It eliminates the need for risk management
D) It ensures all hardware is automatically updated

B — It protects both the network and the organization by outlining policies and procedures

Which of the following is an example of documentation or policy used in network operations?
A) Non-disclosure agreements (NDAs)
B) Firmware updates
C) Server cooling configurations
D) Switch port mirroring

A — Non-disclosure agreements (NDAs)

What is the purpose of change management in network operations?
A) To install software without approval
B) To keep track of updates and ensure everyone is aware of network changes
C) To monitor physical access to the network
D) To replace outdated devices automatically

B — To keep track of updates and ensure everyone is aware of network changes

What is disaster planning in the context of network operations?
A) Planning for software updates
B) Preparing for natural or man-made disasters to maintain network continuity
C) Automating password resets
D) Limiting access to critical devices

B — Preparing for natural or man-made disasters to maintain network continuity

In network operations, what is the role of forensics?
A) Installing firewalls and antivirus software
B) Collecting evidence and data to respond to incidents and support legal investigations
C) Updating wireless access points
D) Monitoring employee productivity

B — Collecting evidence and data to respond to incidents and support legal investigations

What does high availability in network operations aim to achieve?
A) Faster internet speeds
B) Redundancy and fault tolerance to keep critical assets and nodes operational
C) Reducing the number of connected devices
D) Limiting access to cloud services

B — Redundancy and fault tolerance to keep critical assets and nodes operational

What is the main purpose of encryption key management?
A) To speed up data transmission
B) To generate, store, distribute, and safeguard keys that unlock encrypted data
C) To create user accounts automatically
D) To install antivirus software

B — To generate, store, distribute, and safeguard keys that unlock encrypted data

Which of the following is a method of encryption key management?
A) Linear, circular, and parallel
B) Centralized, distributed, and decentralized
C) Manual, automatic, and hybrid
D) Internal, external, and hybrid

B — Centralized, distributed, and decentralized

What is the recommended starting approach for key management in most organizations?
A) Decentralized system first
B) Distributed system only
C) Centralized system first, then gradually move to distributed
D) No formal system is needed

C — Centralized system first, then gradually move to distributed

Which of the following is NOT a key policy or method in an encryption key management program?
A) Security measures to prevent unauthorized access
B) Role-based access controls for key users
C) Instructions for teams to coordinate key handling
D) Automatic deletion of all user emails

D — Automatic deletion of all user emails

What hardware device is considered one of the most secure ways to generate and store encryption keys?
A) Firewall
B) Hardware Security Module (HSM)
C) USB flash drive
D) Network switch

B — Hardware Security Module (HSM)

What is the purpose of deactivating encryption keys?
A) To permanently delete them immediately
B) To retire them from active use while possibly keeping them for decryption
C) To distribute them to everyone in the organization
D) To change their algorithm automatically

B — To retire them from active use while possibly keeping them for decryption

Why is encryption key management critical for data security?
A) It improves network bandwidth
B) It ensures confidentiality, integrity, and availability by preventing unauthorized access
C) It automatically encrypts all emails
D) It speeds up file transfer between servers

B — It ensures confidentiality, integrity, and availability by preventing unauthorized access

What is the main purpose of configuration management in an IT organization?
A) To install antivirus software automatically
B) To keep an organization's systems operating in a defined and known state
C) To increase network speed
D) To monitor social media activity

B — To keep an organization's systems operating in a defined and known state

What is a CMDB in the context of ITIL configuration management?
A) A database for customer feedback
B) A configuration management database storing IT asset information, relationships, and dependencies
C) A cloud storage system
D) A command-line tool for network configuration

B — A configuration management database storing IT asset information, relationships, and dependencies

Which of the following is NOT typically included in IT asset records under configuration management?
A) Installation and changes applied
B) Maintenance actions performed
C) Location, use, and lifespan
D) Employee vacation schedules

D — Employee vacation schedules

How does change management relate to configuration management?
A) Change management handles social media posts
B) Change management identifies, approves, tracks changes and is a part of configuration management
C) Change management replaces configuration management entirely
D) Change management monitors internet usage

B — Change management identifies, approves, tracks changes and is a part of configuration management

What should a formal change management procedure include?
A) Change request with description, justification, anticipated results, and estimated cost or benefit
B) Automatic update of all devices
C) Random changes without approval
D) Employee opinion surveys only

A — Change request with description, justification, anticipated results, and estimated cost or benefit

Why is configuration management critical when implementing IT changes?
A) It helps predict and control the impact of changes on security, availability, and operations
B) It improves the color scheme of user interfaces
C) It increases Wi-Fi coverage
D) It automates printing tasks

A — It helps predict and control the impact of changes on security, availability, and operations

Which of the following is included in configuration management but not strictly in change management?
A) Approval of software updates
B) Asset management including identification, documentation, auditing, and functional assessment
C) Tracking network downtime
D) Monitoring for viruses

B — Asset management including identification, documentation, auditing, and functional assessment

What is the purpose of a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?
A) To define the scope and quality of services between a customer and a service provider
B) To manage IP addresses in a network
C) To provide firewall configuration
D) To create wireless site surveys

A — To define the scope and quality of services between a customer and a service provider

What does a Layer 1 physical network diagram typically show?
A) Routers, IP addresses, and MAC addresses
B) Network adapters, switches, and bridges
C) Physical elements of a network, cabling, WAPs, hubs, and transmission media
D) Firewall rules and policies

C — Physical elements of a network, cabling, WAPs, hubs, and transmission media

Which devices are primarily represented in a Layer 2 data link diagram?
A) Routers and firewalls
B) Network adapters, switches, and bridges with MAC addresses
C) Servers and storage devices
D) Cloud services

B — Network adapters, switches, and bridges with MAC addresses

What is the main focus of a Layer 3 network diagram?
A) Physical cabling layout
B) Interconnection of Layer 2 devices with IP addresses and routers
C) Wireless heat maps
D) Event Viewer logs

B — Interconnection of Layer 2 devices with IP addresses and routers

What is the purpose of baseline configurations in network documentation?
A) To design new software features
B) To provide reference points for CPU utilization, network activity, and device performance
C) To manage email systems
D) To enforce firewall rules

B — To provide reference points for CPU utilization, network activity, and device performance

What is a site survey in networking?
A) A way to audit firewall rules
B) Planning, testing, and verifying the suitability of a location for wireless networks or data centers
C) Tracking IP addresses
D) Installing routers

B — Planning, testing, and verifying the suitability of a location for wireless networks or data centers

What is the purpose of IP Address Management (IPAM)?
A) To track, plan, and control IP addresses in use and manage DNS/DHCP services
B) To monitor wireless access points only
C) To create audit reports
D) To set user permissions

A — To track, plan, and control IP addresses in use and manage DNS/DHCP services

What is the role of audits and assessment reports in network operations?
A) To verify network performance, test systems, and provide recommendations for improvements
B) To replace configuration management databases
C) To assign IP addresses
D) To create user manuals

A — To verify network performance, test systems, and provide recommendations for improvements

What is the purpose of a data center floor plan?
A) To show the physical, top-down layout including doorways, stairwells, offices, outlets, and system locations
B) To display IP addresses of network devices
C) To track user activity logs
D) To manage software licenses

A — To show the physical, top-down layout including doorways, stairwells, offices, outlets, and system locations

What information does a rack diagram typically include?
A) Physical location, U values, device brand, and model number
B) Network topology and routing tables
C) User permissions and roles
D) Wireless signal strength

A — Physical location, U values, device brand, and model number

What makes MDF and IDF documentation unique compared to standard rack diagrams?
A) They focus on interconnections between systems, the MDF, and the internet, including cabling information
B) They show only physical floor layouts
C) They include only IP addresses
D) They track CPU utilization

A — They focus on interconnections between systems, the MDF, and the internet, including cabling information

What does a logical network diagram represent?
A) The physical layout of devices
B) How devices are interconnected regardless of their physical location, including specialized icons and static IP addresses
C) Electrical wiring paths
D) Server room floor tiles

B — How devices are interconnected regardless of their physical location, including specialized icons and static IP addresses

What is the focus of a wiring diagram in a data center?
A) Physical location of devices
B) Who connects to who and how power or signals flow
C) Baseline CPU and memory usage
D) Firewall policies

B — Who connects to who and how power or signals flow

What is the purpose of baseline configurations in data center documentation?
A) To provide reference points for CPU, memory, and network performance, typically held electronically for comparison
B) To create logical network diagrams
C) To document user activity
D) To design wireless heat maps

A — To provide reference points for CPU, memory, and network performance, typically held electronically for comparison

What is a site survey in the context of a data center?
A) Testing and verifying potential locations for data centers, considering power lines, flooding, and other physical conditions
B) Documenting IP addresses for all devices
C) Creating firewall rule sets
D) Auditing network logs

A — Testing and verifying potential locations for data centers, considering power lines, flooding, and other physical conditions

What is the role of audit and assessment reports in a data center?
A) To test network systems, assess their performance, and provide recommendations for improvements
B) To track wireless access points
C) To create floor plans
D) To manage IP addresses

A — To test network systems, assess their performance, and provide recommendations for improvements

What is the primary distinction between patching/updates and change management in IT systems?
A) Patching and updates are usually maintenance issues, while change management deals with major system modifications
B) Patching is only for firmware, and change management is for software
C) Patching never requires testing
D) Change management only applies to operating systems

A — Patching and updates are usually maintenance issues, while change management deals with major system modifications

Why are automatic OS updates often avoided in large corporate environments?
A) Administrators need to test updates on critical nodes like servers before deployment
B) Automatic updates are illegal in corporate environments
C) They are slower than manual updates
D) Operating systems do not support automatic updates

A — Administrators need to test updates on critical nodes like servers before deployment

When should device drivers be updated?
A) To fix incompatibility issues, add new features, or repair bugs
B) Only when the OS forces an update
C) Daily, to ensure maximum performance
D) Never, drivers are static

A — To fix incompatibility issues, add new features, or repair bugs

What is the key purpose of a driver rollback feature?
A) To restore the previous driver version if the new driver causes issues such as system crashes or boot failures
B) To uninstall all drivers
C) To update firmware automatically
D) To delete all system logs

A — To restore the previous driver version if the new driver causes issues such as system crashes or boot failures

Why are firmware updates considered risky?
A) A failed firmware update can damage the device and may not be easily reversible
B) They are slower than driver updates
C) Firmware updates are always automatic
D) Firmware updates only apply to printers

A — A failed firmware update can damage the device and may not be easily reversible

What are the three critical steps to follow before applying a patch or firmware upgrade?
A) Research the patch, test it on a system (preferably a virtual machine), and backup configurations
B) Install immediately, restart, delete backups
C) Notify users, delete old files, ignore testing
D) Only update firmware, ignore software updates

A — Research the patch, test it on a system (preferably a virtual machine), and backup configurations

What does the term “patch management” encompass?
A) All activities related to researching, testing, and applying software and firmware updates
B) Only operating system updates
C) Only hardware replacements
D) Only driver installations

A — All activities related to researching, testing, and applying software and firmware updates

What is the primary purpose of a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?
A) To restore IT infrastructure after disasters such as floods, hurricanes, or hardware failures
B) To upgrade all devices to the latest firmware
C) To monitor user activity continuously
D) To replace all employees after a disaster

A — To restore IT infrastructure after disasters such as floods, hurricanes, or hardware failures

What does Recovery Point Objective (RPO) indicate in backup planning?
A) The amount of data that could be lost during a recovery
B) The time it takes to restore full system functionality
C) The average time between hardware failures
D) The total storage space needed for backups

A — The amount of data that could be lost during a recovery

What does Recovery Time Objective (RTO) measure?
A) The time needed to restore full functionality after an outage
B) The time between two hardware failures
C) The time it takes to perform a full backup
D) The time to update device firmware

A — The time needed to restore full functionality after an outage

What is the difference between configuration data and state data in backups?
A) Configuration data contains device settings, while state data reflects operational status and essential user data
B) Configuration data is user files, and state data is system files
C) Configuration data is stored offsite, and state data is stored locally
D) Configuration data is always larger than state data

A — Configuration data contains device settings, while state data reflects operational status and essential user data

How does a differential backup differ from an incremental backup?
A) Differential backs up all changes since the last full backup; incremental backs up only changes since the last backup of any type
B) Differential backs up only changes since yesterday; incremental backs up everything daily
C) Differential is faster than incremental in all cases
D) Incremental requires fewer backups to restore

A — Differential backs up all changes since the last full backup; incremental backs up only changes since the last backup of any type

What are the three common metrics used to describe system reliability in backup and disaster recovery planning?
A) MTTF (Mean Time To Fail), MTTR (Mean Time To Repair), MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures)
B) RPO, RTO, RPF
C) CPU utilization, memory usage, disk space
D) Full backup, incremental backup, differential backup

A — MTTF (Mean Time To Fail), MTTR (Mean Time To Repair), MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures)

What is the main advantage of using offsite or cloud backups compared to local backups?
A) Protection against physical disasters at the local site, such as fires or floods
B) Faster backup speed
C) No need to test backups
D) Reduced need for incremental backups

A — Protection against physical disasters at the local site, such as fires or floods

Why are snapshots typically not sufficient alone for long-term disaster recovery?
A) Snapshots are usually not stored on separate media and may not survive hardware failures
B) Snapshots cannot capture configuration data
C) Snapshots take longer to create than full backups
D) Snapshots automatically delete older backups

A — Snapshots are usually not stored on separate media and may not survive hardware failures