ANSC 3306 EXAM 1 TTU
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167 Terms
Q: What is the definition of disease
Any departure from the normal state of health.
Q: What is the ultimate economic impact of disease on a producer
Decreased production leads to decreased efficiency and lower profits.
Q: What is the formula representing the direct cost of disease management
One diagnostic leads to one treatment which equals one cost.
Q: What is a major biological cause of disease introduced by new additions to a herd
New animals that are asymptomatic carriers.
Q: What type of nutritional defect is caused by a lack of balance in the diet
Malnutrition.
Q: What type of defect involves undesirable reactions in a gland, organ, or system
Physiological defects.
Q: What type of defect results from accidents or negligence leading to decreased efficiency
Morphological defects.
Q: Which pathogenic organism type is described as difficult to control, making prevention via vaccination best
Viral pathogens.
Q: Which pathogen type produces powerful toxins, multiplies rapidly, and is typically successfully controlled with antibiotics
Bacterial pathogens.
Q: Where do fungal pathogens primarily live
In the soil.
Q: What type of infections are frequently associated with fungal pathogens
Secondary bacterial infections.
Q: What is a protozoa
A one-celled organism.
Q: What are two examples of protozoal diseases mentioned in the text
Coccidiosis and Babesia.
Q: Why are immature and geriatric animals more susceptible to disease
Because their immune systems are either underdeveloped or declining.
Q: Why is sex considered a predisposing cause of disease
Due to reproductive diseases.
Q: What is the golden rule regarding infectious and contagious diseases
Not all infectious diseases are contagious, but all contagious diseases are infectious.
Q: Does the mere presence of microorganisms constitute an infection
No.
Q: What is the first potential fate of invading microorganisms in the body
Elimination in body secretions or excretions.
Q: What is the second potential fate of invading microorganisms in the body
Destruction by the host or arrest as an antigen-antibody complex.
Q: What is the third potential fate of invading microorganisms in the body
Being carried throughout the body by white blood cells.
Q: What is pathogenicity
The ability of a microorganism to produce symptoms and cause changes in tissues and organs.
Q: What is virulence
The degree of pathogenicity.
Q: What five factors determine the virulence of a microorganism
Toxin production, enzymes produced, number of microorganisms, tissue specificity, and host resistance.
Q: What are the five components of host resistance influencing virulence
Inherent resistance, stressors, active immunity, age of the host, and passive immunity.
Q: Give an example of a venereally transmitted infectious agent
Trichomoniasis.
Q: What is a vector-borne disease example transmitted via external parasites
Tick Fever.
Q: What is a fomite
Any substance other than food that can transmit disease, such as feed troughs, walls, humans, or surgical instruments.
Q: Through which excretions and secretions are infectious agents commonly spread
Feces, nasal discharge, and sputum.
Q: What are the ways infectious agents can enter the body by breaking innate barriers
Breaks in the skin, mucous membranes, eyes, and via the intestinal, respiratory, or genitourinary tracts.
Q: What does the prefix DYS- mean
Abnormal.
Q: What does the prefix POLY- mean
Many.
Q: What do the prefixes A- and AN- mean
Without.
Q: What does the prefix HYPER- mean
Elevated.
Q: What does the prefix HYPO- mean
Depressed or below normal.
Q: What do the prefixes BRADY- and TACHY- mean respectively
Slow and Fast.
Q: What do the combining forms ENTERO- and HEMA-/HEMO- refer to
Intestinal and Blood.
Q: What does the suffix -PNEA mean
Breath or respiration.
Q: What does the suffix -ITIS mean
Inflammation.
Q: What does the suffix -EMIA indicate
Blood condition.
Q: What does the suffix -URIA mean
Urinary condition.
Q: What does the suffix -PATHY mean
Disease.
Q: What does the suffix -EMESIS mean
Vomiting.
Q: What does the suffix -ALGIA mean
Pain in a specific location.
Q: Why is pain difficult to conceptualize and quantify in veterinary medicine
Because it requires describing outward physical responses that have both emotional and physiological bases, and pain tolerance varies wildly among species and individuals.
Q: What is superficial pain
Painful responses initiated by stimuli applied to the skin or subcutaneous tissues.
Q: Where does deep pain originate
From muscles, joints, bones, and connective tissue.
Q: How is visceral pain characterized
It may be severe but is poorly localized, corresponding to a general region or referred sites.
Q: Where is parietal pain stimulated, and how is it characterized
Stimulated in the parietal pleura, peritoneum, or pericardium; it is a stabbing pain that is extremely well localized.
Q: What is referred pain
Pain perceived to originate at a site distant from the actual lesion, generally originating from visceral body cavities.
Q: What is hyperthermia
A condition of increased body temperature caused by excessive heat production or environmental heat load exceeding heat loss mechanisms.
Q: Why are ruminants more common victims of heat stroke
Because of their inability to sweat.
Q: Which animal groups are particularly prone to heat stress
Sheep with dense fleece, large dense cattle, and llamas.
Q: What critical physiological failure occurs when rectal temperature exceeds 107 degrees Fahrenheit
Peripheral vasoconstriction, decreased blood pressure, and decreased cardiac output.
Q: What is the key difference between hyperthermia and a fever
A febrile state involves an elevated core temperature set point accompanied by metabolic, hematologic, and immunologic changes.
Q: What are four major categories of conditions that cause a fever
Infectious, noninfectious inflammation, neoplastic, and immune-mediated or drug-induced conditions.
Q: What are the beneficial effects of a mild fever
Enhanced host defenses, inhibited bacterial multiplication and toxin release, and inhibition of certain neoplastic cells.
Q: At what temperature above normal do the beneficial effects of a fever reverse into adverse effects
At temperatures more than 5 degrees Fahrenheit above normal.
Q: What are the adverse effects of prolonged high fevers
Protein loss, anorexia, rapid muscle wasting, weakness, atrophy, and potential cardiovascular failure.
Q: What causes hypothermia in animals
Environmental stressors overwhelming heat production or CNS disease damaging hypothalamic regulatory centers.
Q: Which animal groups are most susceptible to hypothermia
Newborns, cachexic animals, and aged animals.
Q: What are clinical signs of hypothermia
Profound depression, reduction in ventilation, absence of muscle activity, and decreased reflexes.
Q: What is a cough
A normal respiratory defense mechanism involving a sudden, noisy expulsion of air through the glottis.
Q: How do upper airway coughs differ from lower airway coughs
Upper airway coughs are acute, loud, harsh, coarse, dry, and nonproductive; lower airway coughs are persistent, soft, deep, and productive.
Q: What is epistaxis
The presence of blood at the external nares.
Q: What is hemoptysis
Coughing up blood from the respiratory tract.
Q: What is the subjective feeling of difficult or uncomfortable breathing called
Dyspnea.
Q: What physical signs indicate severe respiratory distress in animals
Elevated respiratory rate, extended head or neck, open-mouth breathing, nostril flaring, exaggerated abdominal effort, and heave lines.
Q: What causes cyanosis
A bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes from an absolute increase in reduced hemoglobin in the blood.
Q: What is melena
Dark, tarry feces indicating digested blood from the stomach, abomasum, or proximal small intestine.
Q: What causes melena
Bleeding ulcers in the stomach or abomasum, gastric SCC, indigestion, oral bleeding, or swallowed blood.
Q: What causes dysentery or hematochezia
Bleeding into the distal intestinal tract caused by foreign bodies, intussusception, coccidiosis, salmonellosis, or blister beetle toxicity.
Q: What are the common causes of abdominal distention and constipation
Feed, fluid, fat, fetus, flatulence, feces, or neoplasms, caused by ileus, enteroliths, peritonitis, obstructions, torsions, or obesity.
Q: How do vomiting and regurgitation differ
Regurgitation is passive reflux, while vomiting is an active, centrally mediated event preceded by nausea and retching.
Q: Why is vomiting unusual in horses and ruminants
Ruminants normally regurgitate, while horses only vomit under extreme gastric pressures like rupture or shock.
Q: What are the three clinical categories of dysphagia
Pain-induced, neurologic, and obstructive.
Q: What causes icterus
Increased bilirubin in tissues and serum indicating decreased excretion from liver disease or increased production from hemolytic anemia.
Q: Where does dependent edema gravitate in cattle
Submandibular tissue, brisket, ventral abdomen, and occasionally limbs.
Q: Where does dependent edema gravitate in horses
Pectoral region between forelimbs, ventral abdomen, prepuce, limbs, and occasionally the head.
Q: What are the most common causes of increased capillary permeability leading to edema
Trauma, infection, endotoxemia, and hypersensitivity vasculitis.
Q: In which domestic species are cardiac arrhythmias most common
Horses.
Q: What causes a cardiac murmur
Turbulent blood flow sufficient to cause resonance from anemia, fever, excitement, valvular/stenotic defects, or congenital defects.
Q: What causes lymphadenopathy
Infections (bacterial, viral, fungal) or neoplasia.
Q: What nutritional deficiencies cause neurologic dysfunction
Vitamins A and E, copper, selenium, and magnesium.
Q: Which conditions occur towards the end of gestation or during lactation
Hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia, and nervous ketosis.
Q: What toxicities cause decreased weight gain by interfering with metabolic pathways
Ammonia toxicity, thiamin deficiency, and bracken fern toxicity.
Q: What health risks are associated with obesity in animals
Equine Metabolic Syndrome, reproductive failure, gestation/lactation complications, and obstructive urolithiasis.
Q: What are the key clinical symptoms of dysuria and stranguria
Treading, tail switching, frequent straining, discolored urine, dribbling, vocalization, pollakiuria, and urine scalding.
Q: What does urinary incontinence indicate
Impaired neuromuscular control, congenital ectopic ureters, or severe lower urinary tract trauma/inflammation.
Q: What is the normal rectal temperature range for adult cattle
101.5 to 103.5 degrees Fahrenheit for calves, and 102.5 degrees Fahrenheit for adults.
Q: What is the normal heart rate and respiratory rate for adult cattle
Heart rate is 60 to 80 beats per minute; respiratory rate is 10 to 30 breaths per minute.
Q: What is the average gestation length for cattle
283 days.
Q: What is the normal temperature range for sheep and goats
Sheep range from 101.3 to 104 degrees Fahrenheit; goats range from 101.3 to 104.5 degrees Fahrenheit.
Q: What are the heart and respiratory rates for sheep and goats
Sheep heart rate is 70 to 120 beats per minute; goat heart rate is 70 to 135 beats per minute, with respiratory rates at 10 to 30 breaths per minute.
Q: What are the average gestation lengths for sheep and goats
Sheep are 148 days; goats are 149 days.
Q: What is the normal temperature range for swine
Piglets range from 102 to 104 degrees Fahrenheit; adults range from 100 to 102 degrees Fahrenheit.
Q: What are the heart and respiratory rates for adult swine
Heart rate is 60 to 90 beats per minute; respiratory rate is 8 to 18 breaths per minute.
Q: What is the average gestation length for swine
114 days.
Q: What is the normal temperature range for an adult horse
99 to 101.3 degrees Fahrenheit.
Q: What are the heart and respiratory rates for an adult horse
Heart rate is 28 to 40 beats per minute; respiratory rate is 10 to 14 breaths per minute.
Q: What is the average gestation length for a horse
337 days.