LA nursing review with maggie

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78 Terms

1
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which of the following is the correct definition of colic?

abdominal pain from any cause

2
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what is the average volume of the equine stomach?

5-15L

3
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what structure is responsible for preventing horses from vomiting?

cardiac sphincter

4
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which section of the GI tract is folded into a double horseshoe shape?

large colon

5
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what is the normal number of borborygmi per minute per quadrant in the horse?

1-3

6
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why are horses considered hindgut fermenters?

fermentation occurs in the cecum and large colon

7
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which clinical sign is most commonly associated with endotoxemia/SIRS?

purple "toxic line" on gums

8
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tympany refers to:

gas distension of a GI segment

9
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what is the physiological cause of increased lactate in colic patients?

tissue hypoxia and anaerobic metabolism

10
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why does nasogastric intubation become urgent when heart rate exceeds 60 bpm?

a high risk of gastric rupture

11
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a horse presents with decreased fecal output, pawing, repeated attempts to lie down. what is the MOST appropriate next step?

perform a physical exam and TPR

12
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during nasogastric intubation, which finding confirms correct tube placement?

negative pressure on suction

13
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a horse shows distended small intestine on ultrasound and reduced motility. which condition is most consistent with these findings?

small intestine obstruction

14
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a technician records a PCV of 55% and TP of 8.0 g/dL. which condition is most likely present?

dehydration

-due to high TP

15
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an ultrasound of left abdomen shows inability to locate left kidney. what is this indicative of?

left dorsal displacement

16
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which finding most strongly differentiates a strangulating obstruction from a non-strangulating obstruction?

rapid onset of unrelenting pain

-when strangulated, circulation is cut off from a section of tissues, which can be painful

-causes tachycardia, dark red/purple MM's

17
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a colic case has high potential lactate, dark red abdominal fluid, and thickened bowel walls on ultrasound. what is the most likely condition?

strangulating obstruction

18
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which combination of findings indicates hypovolemia rather than dehydration?

tachycardia, weak pulses, prolonged CRT

19
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a horse's borbroygmi are decreased and a high-pitched "ping" is heard. this is most consistent with:

gas distension

20
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on rectal exam, "tight bands" of tissue are palpated by the veterinarian. this most likely indicates:

strangulated small intestine

21
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a horse has >10L net reflux despite IV fluids. what should the tech anticipate?

recalculation and escalation of fluid therapy

22
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after releasing a torsion in surgery, the horse's blood pressure drops. what is the most likely cause?

sudden reperfusion causing vasodilation

23
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which preventative strategy is most effective in reducing colic risk?

routine deworming and maximizing turnout

24
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a horse with repeated colic episodes is found to have poor dental health. which conclusion is most accurate?

poor mastication predisposes to impactions

25
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a horse presents with sand impaction. which treatment plan is most typical?

oral psyllium, IV fluids, and monitoring for reflux

26
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you must educate a new horse owner about early colic recognition. what key message should you prioritize?

early signs that require prompt evaluation

27
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which post-colic feeding plan is most appropriate after resolution of a simple obstruction?

small, frequent soft forage meals

28
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a horse with volvulus requires intense postoperative monitoring. which parameter is the MOST critical to track?

PCV/TP and lactate

29
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when collaborating with a veterinarian during a colic work-up, which technician action demonstrates the highest level of professional competency?

anticipating the need for diagnostic supplies

30
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which dairy cattle breed makes up the largest percentage of the U.S. dairy population?

Holstein

31
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Holsteins and jerseys dominate US dairy herds primarily because they:

produce high milk yield

32
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a producer wants to increase milk fat and protein levels in the bulk tank. which breeding strategy is most appropriate?

select Jersey bulls with high PTA for components

33
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which of the following feed components is indigestible?

-cellulose

-hemicellulose

-lignin

-starch

lignin

34
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why do cows in early lactation require higher-energy diets?

to prevent a negative energy balance

-causes ketosis and hypocalcemia

35
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a producer notices cows gaining excessive condition in late lactation. what dietary adjustment is most appropriate?

reduce energy intake

36
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a heifer is 55% of her mature weight. according to benchmarks, what management action should occur?

first breeding

37
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clinical hypocalcemia is defined as:

low blood calcium

38
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why is biosecurity critical in large dairy operations?

it minimizes disease speed

39
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if a herd shows rising somatic cell counts and udder infections, which management area is most likely implicated?

bedding material selection

40
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dairy heifers in well-managed herds are normally bred for the first time at:

13-15 months

41
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the calving interval is important primarily because:

it affects milk output and reproductive efficiency

42
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a cow is frequently cycling irregularly. which tool would best synchronize her estrus for AI?

progesterone CIDR protocol

43
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on average, how many days per year is a dairy cow in milk?

305

44
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the main advantage of a rapid-exit parlor is:

faster cow turnover

45
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a herd's milk quality is declining. which change would most directly improve udder health?

replacing worn milking liners

46
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how long is the calf normally left with the cow before moving to individual housing?

up to 1 hour

47
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a cow is in stage II labor for 2 hours with no progress. what does this indicate?

dystocia

48
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what is the primary housing system for large US dairy farms?

freestall barns

49
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barn ventilation is important because it:

reduces heat stress

50
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a dry-lot dairy in a hot climate is experiencing muddy pens after heavy rain. which disadvantage of dry-lot systems does this represent?

weather-dependent condition

51
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as dairy farm numbers decreased and cows per farm increased since the 1980s, the industry has:

improved consolidation and efficiency

52
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milk production per cow has increased despite fewer total cows. what factor best explains this?

improved management

53
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a farm wants to monitor reproductive efficiency. which record is most essential?

calving interval

54
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the most common housing type for preweaned calves is:

hutches

55
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pair housing calves is considered beneficial because it:

supports feeding behavior

56
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a farm uses group housing for preweaned calves. which is a disadvantage?

higher risk of disease

57
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sustainable dairy practices aim to primarily reduce:

environmental impact

58
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a dairy producer wants to decrease nitrogen runoff on their farm. which change is most appropriate?

improving manure storage

59
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a farmer asks whether switching froma herringbone to a rotary parlor is worth the investment. which of the following should be evaluated?

-construction cost

-cleaning time

-labor davings

-herd size

-head throughput

60
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which tumor is the most common neoplastic condition of the equine eye?

squamos cell carcinoma

61
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what organism is the primary cause of IBK?

moraxella bovis

62
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what is the term for the normal pigmented masses along the equine pupillary margin?

corpora nigra

63
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which species has an oval pupil with a prominent dorsal and ventral pupillary ruff?

llama

64
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why are equine corneal ulcers considered more serious than those in small animals?

horses are predisposed to fungal keratitis

65
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which factor most strongly predisposes cattle to ocular squamous cell carcinoma?

non-pigmented eyelids

66
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why is entropiion especially common in potbellied pigs?

excessive forehead fat

67
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what may best explain why horses have slow pupillary light reflex?

their iris moves slowly

68
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why does IBK frequently worsen in summer months?

increased UV light

69
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a horse presents with blepharospasm epiphora, and photophobia. fluorescein stain is positive. what is the next best step if the ulcer hasn't improved after 48 hours of treatment?

perform cytology and culture

70
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a hereford cow presents with a non-pigmented eyelid mass near the limbus that bleeds easily. what is the most likely suspected?

SCC

71
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a 12-year-old Appaloosa shows corneal edema, fixed dilated pupil, and elevated IOP. what condition is most likely?

glaucoma

72
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you suspect pinkeye in goats. which diagnostic approach is most appropriate?

cytology and culture

73
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a 4-H pig presents with chronic epiphora. what is the most likely cause?

environment irritant

74
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what finding best differentiates stromal abscess from a superficial ulcer?

glaucoma

75
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in cattle, which clinical sign helps distinguish silage eye from IBK?

uveitis

76
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a goat herd shows simultaneous respiratory disease and KCS. which agent is more consistent with both?

mycoplasma conjunctiva

77
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a horse displays recurrent bouts of ocular pain with miosis, corneal edema, and low IOP. another horse shows band keratopathy and Haab's striae. which disease explains the first case and likely contributed to the second?

ERU (equine recurrent uveitis)

78
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which combination of findings is most consistent with bovine OSCC rather than IBK?

old age slows progression