[MANOR] Organic Chemistry - Practice Questions

Proverbs 16:3

B) Phenol coefficient

1. The ratio of disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill a given strain of the bacterium Salmonella typhi:
   a) Phenol number
   b) Phenol coefficient
   c) Phenol value
   d) None of the above

C) Ketoconazole

2. The generic name of Nizoral:
   a) Miconazole
   b) Clotrimazole
   c) Ketoconazole
   d) Potassium sorbate

C) both a and b

• Mafenide

• Silver sulfadiazine

3. Sulfonamides used for burn therapy:
   a) Mafenide
   b) Silver sulfadiazine
   c) both a and b
   d) none of the preceding

A) undecylenic acid

📌Example of Preservatives include:

• Methylparaben

• Benzoic acid

• Potassium sorbate

4. The following are preservatives except:
   a) undecylenic acid
   b) Methyl paraben
   c) benzoic acid
   d) potassium sorbate

C) co-trimoxazole

📌Trimethorprim + Sulfamethoxazole → Co-trimoxazole

5. The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is also known as:
   a) clotrimazole
   b) miconazole
   c) co-trimoxazole
   d) cotrimazine

B) Nystatin

6. A polyene anti-fungal antibiotic:
   a) Griseofulvin
   b) Nystatin
   c) Salicylic acid
   d) Econazole

A) Penicillin G

7. Benzyl penicillin is also known as:
   a) Penicillin G
   b) Penicillin V
   c) Oxacillin
   d) Ampicillin

D) Nalidixic acid

8. First generation urinary tract anti-infective:
   a) salicylic acid
   b) Griseofulvin
   c) Norfloxacin
   d) Nalidixic acid

A) Norfloxacin

9. A fluoroquinolone:
   a) Norfloxacin
   b) Pipemedic acid
   c) Methenamine
   d) none of the above

D) Streptomycin

📌NOTE:

In standard first-line combination therapy for tuberculosis, the regimen includes:

• Rifampin (Rifampicin)

• Isoniazid (INH)

• Pyrazinamide

• Ethambutol

👉 Streptomycin is not part of the routine first-line combination therapy anymore. It was used historically but is now considered a second-line drug due to toxicity (ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity) and resistance issues.

10. Combination therapy in the treatment of tuberculosis contain the following drugs, except:
    a) Ethambutol
    b) Rifampin
    c) Isoniazid
    d) Streptomycin

B) Chloroquine

📌NOTE:

Drugs used for amoebic dysentery:

• Tinidazole

• Etofamide

• Metronidazole

11. These drugs are used in treatment of amoebic dysentery, except:
    a) Tinidazole
    b) Chloroquine
    c) Etofamide
    d) Metronidazole

B) Cefepime

12. A fourth generation cephalosporin:
    a) Cefalexin
    b) Cefepime
    c) Cefamandole
    d) Cefuroxime

C) Acyclovir

13. This drug is used in the treatment of chicken pox:
    a) Zidovudine
    b) Chloroquine
    c) Acyclovir
    d) Metronidazole

A) Chloramphenicol

14. The drug of choice for typhoid fever:
    a) Chloramphenicol
    b) Lincomycin
    c) Penicillin
    d) Cephalosporins

D) Clindamycin

15. The generic name of Dalacin C which is often used to treat pimples:
    a) Erythromycin
    b) Tetracycline
    c) Lincomycin
    d) Clindamycin

B) chemotherapy

16. The study of chemical agents which are selectively more toxic to the invading organisms than the host:
    a) therapeutics
    b) chemotherapy
    c) organic chemistry
    d) biochemistry

C) antiseptics

17. Compounds that kill or prevent the growth of microorganisms when applied to living tissues:
    a) disinfectant
    b) fungicides
    c) antiseptics
    d) systemic anti-infectives

A) Povidone-Iodine

18. A combination of non-ionic and cationic surfactants with iodine:
    a) Povidone-Iodine
    b) Strong I2 solution
    c) Iodine Tincture
    d) I2 in KI solution

D) Benzalkonium chloride

19. The generic name of new Merthiolate is:
    a) Chlorhexidine gluconate
    b) Thimerosal
    c) Mexachlorophene
    d) Benzalkonium chloride

B) inhibition of DNA gyrase

20. Mechanism of action of quinolones:
    a) injury to plasma membrane
    b) inhibition of DNA gyrase
    c) protein synthesis inhibition
    d) production of toxic free radicals

B) biguanides

21. Prodrugs of active anti-malarial metabolites, the dihydrotriazines:
    a) quinolines
    b) biguanides
    c) beta-lactams
    d) quinolones

A) clindamycin

22. 7 chloro-7-deoxy lincomycin:
    a) clindamycin
    b) roxithromycin
    c) spectinomycin
    d) ilotycin

D) cycloguanil

23. The drug is effective against both exoerythrocytic (liver stage) and erythrocytic (blood stage) forms of malaria:
    a) chloroquine
    b) quinine
    c) amodiaquine
    d) cycloguanil

B) mefloquine

24. Newest and most potent quinoline derivative for malaria:
    a) amodiaquine
    b) mefloquine
    c) atabrine
    d) daraprim

B) pentamidine

25. An aromatic diamide derivative used for sleeping sickness:
    a) suramin
    b) pentamidine
    c) eflornithine
    d) stibophen

A) clarithromycin

26. Methylated erythromycin:
    a) clarithromycin
    b) azithromycin
    c) lincomycin
    d) ilotycin

B) Amikin

27. A semi-synthetic aminoglycoside whose structural prototype is kanamycin:
    a) Kantrex
    b) Amikin
    c) Garamycin
    d) Nebcin

B) rimantadine

28. Structural congener of Symmetrel which is used for viral influenza:
    a) ribavirin
    b) rimantadine
    c) ganciclovir
    d) foscarnet

A) levo

29. More potent optical isomer of ofloxacin:
    a) levo
    b) dextro
    c) cis isomer
    d) trans isomer

B) sulfones

30. These group of drugs share the same mechanism of action as that of sulfanilamide but are less effective:
    a) trimethoprim
    b) sulfones
    c) quinolones
    d) none of the above

B) inhibition of cell division

31. Mechanism of action of thiabendazole:
    a) paralysis due to GABA receptor occupation
    b) inhibition of cell division
    c) phagocytic attack on worms
    d) decreased glucose uptake

B) sulfamylon

32. This anti-burn therapy causes systemic acidosis:
    a) silvadene
    b) sulfamylon
    c) whitfield
    d) vandol

C) diethylcarbamazine

33. Drug of choice for filarial infections:
    a) ivermectin
    b) praziquantel
    c) diethylcarbamazine
    d) Stibophen

A) non-ionized

34. Active form of the sulfonamide:
    a) non-ionized
    b) ionized
    c) amphoteric
    d) oxo ring

B) scabicide

35. Use of crotamiton:
    a) pediculicide
    b) scabicide
    c) anthelmintic
    d) antibacterial

C) decreased glucose uptake

36. Mechanism of action of mebendazole:
    a) paralysis due to excessive loss of calcium
    b) unknown mechanism of action
    c) decreased glucose uptake
    d) phagocytic attack on worms

D) Adifax

37. A sympathomimetic agent that bind to alpha receptors found centrally that cause suppression of appetite:
    a) Xenical
    b) Gas-X
    c) Apokinon
    d) Adifax

B) benzoic acid to hippuric acid

38. An example of a glycine conjugation pathway:
    a) phenol to phenolsulfate
    b) benzoic acid to hippuric acid
    c) noradrenaline to epinephrine
    d) antabuse to dithiocarbamic acid

D) higher to lower concentration gradient

39. The following are characteristics of active transport, except:
    a) follow saturation kinetics
    b) expenditure of energy
    c) carrier mediated
    d) higher to lower concentration gradient

B) astringents

40. These anti-diarrheals tend to decrease pore sizes of GIT epithelial to prevent formation of watery stools:
    a) adsorbents
    b) astringents
    c) anti-motility
    d) oresols

C) dimenhydrinate

41. This anti-histamine possesses the same indications as that of diphenhydramine:
    a) meclizine
    b) hyoscine
    c) dimenhydrinate
    d) celestamine

A) tolbutamide

📌NOTE:

Metabolism of warfarin is caused by:

• Haloperidol

• Nitroglycerine

• DDT

42. The metabolism of warfarin is induced by the following except:
    a) tolbutamide
    b) haloperidol
    c) nitroglycerine
    d) DDT

C) alpha tocopherol (Vitamin E)

43. Fertility vitamins:
    a) retinoic acid
    b) riboflavin
    c) alpha tocopherol
    d) biotin

C) vitamin D3

44. Calcitriol, a hormone responsible for enhanced absorption of calcium from the intestines, is synthesized from:
    a) calcitonin
    b) vitamin D2
    c) vitamin D3
    d) caltrate

A) trichloroacetic acid

45. A metabolite of chloral hydrate:
    a) trichloroacetic acid
    b) acetaldehyde
    c) carbapenem ring
    d) phenacetone

A) lidocaine

46. A sample drug excreted via the saliva:
    a) lidocaine
    b) sulfonamide
    c) sulfonamide
    d) thiamine

B) Tegison

47. A vitamin A derivative used in the management of psoriasis:
    a) Retin-A
    b) Tegison
    c) Accutane
    d) Oilatum

B) ability to bind on a specific receptor

48. Structurally specific drugs are those whose activity depends on:
    a) physical characteristics
    b) ability to bind on a specific receptor
    c) both a and c
    d) none of the above

A) primary

49. The most potent anti-bacterial alcohol:
    a) primary
    b) secondary
    c) tertiary
    d) quaternary

B) penicilloic acid

50. Product of acid hydrolysis of penicillins:
    a) penicillenic acid
    b) penicilloic acid
    c) penicilloate Cl
    d) pinecillic acid

B) glutarol

51. Cidex:
    a) gammabenzenehexachloride
    b) glutarol
    c) hexachlorophene
    d) carbamoyl phosphate

B) acid stability

52. Presence of electron withdrawing groups attached to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render:
    a) activity against Pseudomonas
    b) acid stability
    c) activity against Gram (-) bacteria
    d) penicillinase resistance

D) penicillinase resistance

53. Attachment of bulky groups to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render:
    a) activity against Pseudomonas
    b) acid stability
    c) activity against Gram (-) bacteria
    d) penicillinase resistance

B) vancomycin

54. A glycopeptide antibiotic:
    a) beta-lactam
    b) vancomycin
    c) polymyxin
    d) probenecid

C) tumor mass may be removed by surgery and regression of remaining cells occur

55. A tumor is benign if:
    a) metastasis is evident
    b) cell originating from the tumor may invade other tissues and cause damage
    c) tumor mass may be removed by surgery and regression of remaining cells occur
    d) cause damage to surrounding structures

B) 1 billion cancer cells

56. 1 gram mass of tumor is equivalent to:
    a) 100,000 cancer cells
    b) 1 billion cancer cells
    c) 1 million cancer cells
    d) none of the above

C) caramiphen

57. The following are mucolytics, except:
    a) bromhexine
    b) acetylcysteine
    c) caramiphen
    d) none of the above

C) via inhalation

58. The side effects of steroids used for asthma are minimized when the drug is given:
    a) orally
    b) intravenously
    c) via inhalation
    d) rectally

B) depo-provera

59. A progesterone derivative which is used for the treatment of endometrial cancer:
    a) tamoxifen
    b) depo-provera
    c) flutamide
    d) goserelin

B) ethosuximide

60. Drug of choice for absence seizures:
    a) carbamazepine
    b) ethosuximide
    c) phenytoin
    d) primidone

C) BHT

61. An anti-oxidant added in food products which are potent carcinogens:
    a) aspartame
    b) PCP
    c) BHT
    d) EDTA

A) rhodamine B

62. Pentavalent antimony in the presence of hydrochloric acid gives a violet precipitate with this pink dye:
    a) rhodamine B
    b) aluminum reagent
    c) p-nitrobenzene azo-resorcinol
    d) dimethylglyoxime

C) guaifenesin

63. Expectorant obtained from the phenol volatile oil of Fagus grandiflora:
    a) potassium iodide
    b) tyloxapol
    c) guaifenesin
    d) emetine

B) phenylethylamine

64. Mescaline is a _________ derivative:
    a) indolethylamine
    b) phenylethylamine
    c) steroidal
    d) xanthine

D) methoxyflurane

65. Anesthetic of choice for labor:
    a) halothane
    b) enflurane
    c) nitrous oxide
    d) methoxyflurane

B) Avamigran

66. The drug of choice for the acute attack of migraine:
    a) Codeine
    b) Avamigran
    c) Litec
    d) Inderal

C) enflurane

67. Anesthetic of choice for patients with asthma:
    a) ketamine
    b) thiopental
    c) enflurane
    d) none of the above

D) naproxen

68. Propionic acid derivative:
    a) paracetamol
    b) dipyrone
    c) piroxicam
    d) naproxen

B) povidone-iodine

69. An example of iodophor:
    a) iodine tincture
    b) povidone-iodine
    c) Lugol's solution
    d) all of the above

B) benzyl alcohol

70. Phenylmethanol:
    a) chloretone
    b) benzyl alcohol
    c) phenylalcohol
    d) carvacrol

A) lack of normal growth controls all cell types

71. A characteristic of cancer cells:
    a) lack of normal growth controls all cell types
    b) synthesis of DNA occurs in the M phase
    c) G0 phase is the resting phase for
    d) None of the above

A) polychlorinated biphenyls

72. Carcinogenic substances obtained from paper products:
    a) polychlorinated biphenyls
    b) acesulfame
    c) butylatedhydroxyanisole
    d) none of the above

C) eicosanoids

73. Prostaglandins are also known as:
    a) saturated fats
    b) compound lipids
    c) eicosanoids
    d) all of the above

C) amine

74. Which of the following functional groups is the most basic?
    a) imide
    b) amide
    c) amine
    d) aniline

A) oral hypoglycemics

75. Derivatives of benzylsulfonylureas are:
    a) oral hypoglycemics
    b) diuretics
    c) anti-inflammatory
    d) spasmolytic

B) retinal

76. A necessary precursor of visual pigment is:
    a) tocopherol
    b) retinal
    c) ergosterol
    d) retinol

C) aniline derivative

77. Paracetamol is a/an:
    a) salicylate
    b) pyrazolone
    c) aniline derivative
    d) azocine derivative

B) testosterone

78. All of the following are progestins except:
    a) norethindrone
    b) testosterone
    c) ethynodiol diacetate
    d) progesterone

C) heroin

79. Aspirin is to salicylic acid as morphine is to:
    a) codeine
    b) methadone
    c) heroin
    d) pentazocine

A) alcohol

80. The functional group in pyridoxine is:
    a) alcohol
    b) amine
    c) carboxylic acid
    d) ketone

A) enols

81. Ascorbic acid and tetracycline are:
    a) enols
    b) esters
    c) ethers
    d) amines

C) enzyme

82. MAO is classified as a/an:
    a) protein inhibitor
    b) complexing agent
    c) enzyme
    d) hormone

C) oil soluble antioxidant

83. When used in pharmaceutic preparations, the purpose of hydroquinone, lecithin and alpha tocopherol is:
    a) humectant
    b) demelanizing agent
    c) oil soluble antioxidant
    d) emulsifying agent

D) bronchodilator

84. Naturally occurring alkaloids, derivatives of tropane are:
    a) nasal decongestants
    b) analgesic
    c) vasoconstrictor
    d) bronchodilator

A) lidocaine

85. Local anesthetics that is not a derivative of benzoic acid is:
    a) lidocaine
    b) procaine
    c) dibucaine
    d) bupivacaine

C) vancomycin

86. All of the following are macrolide antibiotics, except:
    a) erythromycin
    b) oleandomycin
    c) vancomycin
    d) spiramycin

B) lorazepam

87. Ativan has this generic name:
    a) triazolam
    b) lorazepam
    c) flurazepam
    d) tranexamic acid

B) metoclopramide

88. Plasil is:
    a) acyclovir
    b) metoclopramide
    c) diclofenac sodium
    d) tranexamic acid

C) salicylic acid

89. The principal hydrolytic degradation product of aspirin is:
    a) methyl salicylate
    b) acetyl chloride
    c) salicylic acid
    d) salicylamide

D) ultra short acting

90. Barbiturates containing a sulfur atom are usually:
    a) short acting
    b) intermediate acting
    c) long acting
    d) ultra short acting

D) lipids

91. Although the prostaglandins are hormone-like, they may closely resemble which of the following chemically?
    a) enzymes
    b) porphyrins
    c) proteins
    d) lipids

A) lipid solubility

92. The onset and duration of barbiturate action is mainly a function of its:
    a) lipid solubility
    b) renal excretion
    c) plasma binding
    d) method of administration

B) naloxone

93. The prototype narcotic antagonist is:
    a) nalorphine
    b) naloxone
    c) levallorphan
    d) meperidine

D) ergot derivative

94. Lysergic acid diethylamide is:
    a) derived from mushroom
    b) a parasympathetic drug
    c) histamine analog
    d) ergot derivative

B) salicylic acid

95. Orthohydroxybenzoic acid is:
    a) acetic acid
    b) salicylic acid
    c) oxalic acid
    d) citric acid

B) acetazolamide

96. Diamox has a generic name of:
    a) allopurinol
    b) acetazolamide
    c) dimethylxanthine
    d) theophylline

C) meperidine

97. Diphenoxylate is a structural analog of:
    a) dilantin
    b) codeine
    c) meperidine
    d) naloxone

B) ascorbic acid

98. Cevitamic acid is:
    a) folic acid
    b) ascorbic acid
    c) nicotinic acid
    d) glacial acetic acid

C) aralen

99. Chloroquine is the generic name of:
    a) atabrine
    b) artane
    c) aralen
    d) akineton

D) aminoglycosides

100. Kantrex belongs to this type of antibiotics:
     a) penicillins
     b) cephalosporins
     c) macrolides
     d) aminoglycosides