Pilot Cafe Based Study Guide

These flashcards cover key concepts and regulations related to IFR flight operations and pilot qualifications.

What are the pilot qualifications required for IFR flight?

An instrument rating is required when acting as PIC under IFR or in weather conditions less than VFR.

What does the acronym “IM SAFE” stand for in preflight self-assessment?

I - Illness, M - Medication, S - Stress, A - Alcohol, F - Fatigue, E - Emotion.

What is the purpose of a safety pilot for IFR currency?

To allow a pilot to regain currency by performing 6 HITS under simulated IMC.

What does “ARROW” stand for in required aircraft documents?

A - Airworthiness certificate, R - Registration certificate (7 years), R - Radio operating license (outside the US), O - Operating limitations (POH), W - Weight & Balance data (most current)

What is the 1-2-3 rule regarding alternate airports?

The 1-2-3 rule dictates that an IFR-filed flight requires an alternate airport if, from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the Estimated Time of Arrival (ETA), the forecast indicates a ceiling below 2,000 feet or visibility below 3 statute miles

What do the terms MDA and DA stand for in instrument approaches?

MDA - Minimum Descent Altitude, DA - Decision Altitude.

What are the minimum fuel requirements for IFR operations?

Fuel to destination, then to your alternate (if required) plus 45 minutes at normal cruise.

What does STAR stand for and what is the purpose of a STAR in flight operations?

STAR stands for Standard Terminal Arrival Route. A STAR is a preplanned ATC-coded arrival procedure that serves as a transition between the enroute structure and a point from which an approach to landing can be made.

How often must VOR receivers be checked for accuracy to be IFR certified?

Every $(30)$ calendar days.

What does the acronym “PAVE” stand for in risk management?

P - Pilot, A - Aircraft, V - Environment, E - External pressures.

What are the weather minimums for a VFR flight in Class G airspace below $(1,200)$ feet AGL?

Day: $(1)$ SM clear of clouds; Night: $(3)$ SM, $(1,000)$ ft above, $(500)$ ft below, $(2,000)$ ft horizontal.

What is the maximum airspeed below $(10,000)$ feet MSL?

$(250)$ knots.

What information is included in a standard weather briefing?

Adverse conditions (SIGMETs and AIRMETs), VFR not recommended, synopsis, current conditions (PIREPs and METARs), enroute forecast, destination forecast, winds aloft, NOTAMs, and ATC delays.

What is the purpose of a holding pattern in IFR operations?

To delay or separate traffic in the air.

When is an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) required?

If a pilot has not met the instrument recency experience requirements (often called "currency") for the past 6 months, they have a "grace period" of another 6 months to get current. If they fail to get current during that grace period (i.e., they are non-current for 12 months total), an IPC is mandatory.

What do you log to regain currency if you've exceeded the $(6)$ months without IFR experience?

Perform $(6)$ instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting & tracking courses.

What is an IFR flight plan requirement before operating in controlled airspace?

You must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC clearance.

What is the acronym for IFR preflight information required by FAR 91.103 and what does it stand for?

NWKRAFT: NOTAMs, Weather, Known ATC Delays, Runway Lengths, Alternates, Fuel, Takeoff/Landing Distances

What is the FAA regulation for alcohol consumption before a flight?

$(8)$ hours from bottle to throttle.

What is the maximum allowable Blood Alcohol Content (BAC) for pilots?

0.04

How long do you have to wait to fly after scuba diving if flying below 8,000 ft?

12 hours

How long do you have to wait to fly after scuba diving if flying above 8,000 ft?

24 hours

What are the 4 types of Hypoxia

Hypoxic, Hypemic, Stagnant, and Histotoxic

What is Hypoxic Hypoxia?

Insufficient oxygen available to the body as a whole, usually due to low partial pressure at altitude.

What is Hypemic Hypoxia?

The blood is unable to transport a sufficient amount of oxygen to the cells, often caused by carbon monoxide poisoning.

What is Stagnant Hypoxia?

Oxygen-rich blood is not moving to tissues, often caused by high G-loads or heart failure.

What is Histotoxic Hypoxia?

Cells are unable to use the oxygen provided, often due to alcohol or drug use.

What are the Supplemental Oxygen requirements for the flight crew between $(12,500)$ and $(14,000)$ feet MSL?

Oxygen is required for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than $(30)$ minutes duration.

What are the Supplemental Oxygen requirements above $(14,000)$ feet MSL?

The required minimum flight crew must be provided with and use supplemental oxygen during the entire flight time at those altitudes.

What are the Supplemental Oxygen requirements above $(15,000)$ feet MSL?

Each occupant of the aircraft must be provided with supplemental oxygen.

What spatial disorientation illusion involves a sudden return to level flight from a gradual turn? Making you think you are turning when you are actually level

The Leans

What does the 'Coriolis Illusion' result from?

Abrupt head movement in a prolonged constant-rate turn, stimulating the semi-circular canals.

What optical illusion occurs when flying into a runway that is narrower than usual?

The pilot may feel they are higher than they actually are, leading to a lower approach.

What optical illusion occurs when flying into a runway that is wider than usual?

The pilot may feel they are lower than they actually are, leading to a higher approach.

What does acronym 'AVIATES' stand for in airworthiness inspections?

Air Worthiness Directives, VOR (every 30 days), Inspections (100 hour and Annual), Altimeter (plus static system) and Transponder (24 calendar months), ELT (inspected once every 12 calendar months. Replaced if at ½ battery or used for 1 how cumulatively), Supplemental Type Certificates.

What is the acceptable tolerance for a VOT (VOR Test Facility) check?

plus or minus 4 degrees

What is the acceptable tolerance for a VOR Ground Check?

plus or minus 4 degrees

What is the acceptable tolerance for a VOR Dual Check?

No more than $(4^{\circ})$ difference between the two receivers.

What is the acceptable tolerance for a VOR Airborne Check?

Plus or minus 6 degrees

How many degrees of deviation does a full-scale deflection on a VOR indicator represent?

10 degrees (2 degrees per dot)

What acronym covers the required equipment for IFR day flight?

ATOMATO FLAMES plus GRAB CARD

What does GRAB CARD stand for?

Generator/Alternator, Radios, Altimeter (sensitive), Ball (Slip/Skid), Clock (seconds), Attitude indicator, Rate of turn indicator, Directional gyro (Heading indicator)

What are the three mandatory components of an ILS?

Guidance (Localizer/Glideslope), Range (Marker Beacons/DME), and Visual (Lights).

What frequency range does the Localizer operate on?

108.10 to 111.95 MHz (odd tenths)

What is the angular width of the Localizer signal?

Between 3 degrees and 6 degrees (most commonly 5 degrees)

What is the angular width of the Glideslope?

1.4 degrees (0.7 above and 0.7 below)

What does a Blue light and a series of morse code dashes indicate on an ILS?

Outer Marker (OM)

What does an Amber light and alternating morse code dots/dashes indicate on an ILS?

Middle Marker (MM).

What is the 'variation' compass error?

The angular difference between True North and Magnetic North.

What is the 'deviation' compass error?

Magnetic interference caused by the aircraft and its electrical systems.

What are the acronyms for remembering compass errors and what do they mean?

ANDS UNOS. Accelerate North Decelerate South. Undershoot North Overshoot South.

If the pitot tube's ram air inlet is blocked but the drain hole is open, what happens to the airspeed indicator?

It drops to zero.

If both the ram air inlet and drain hole of a pitot tube are blocked, how will the airspeed indicator behave?

It acts like an altimeter, increasing in climb and decreasing in descent.

What instruments are affected by a static port blockage?

Airspeed Indicator, Altimeter, and VSI.

What does an Altimeter read if the static port is blocked?

It freezes at the altitude where the blockage occurred.

What is the result of using an alternate static source on the Altimeter?

It generally reads slightly higher than actual altitude.

Which flight instruments are gyroscopic?

Attitude Indicator, Heading Indicator, and Turn Coordinator.

What is 'Rigidity in Space' as it applies to gyroscopes?

The tendency of a rotating object to remain in its fixed position in the plane in which it is spinning.

What is the Acronym of CRAFT and what does it stand for?

Clearance Limit, Route, Altitude, Frequency, Transponder.

What is the MEA (Minimum Enroute Altitude)?

The lowest published altitude which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between radio fixes.

What is the MOCA (Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude)?

Ensures obstacle clearance for the entire route and navigation signal coverage within $(22)$ NM of the VOR.

What is the MRA (Minimum Reception Altitude)?

The lowest altitude at which a stated fix can be determined.

What is the MCA (Minimum Crossing Altitude)?

The lowest altitude at which a fix must be crossed when proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA.

What is the OROCA (Off Route Obstacle Clearance Altitude)?

An off-route altitude that provides 1,000ft clearance (2,000ft in mountainous areas) but doesn't guarantee nav/comm signal.

What obstacle clearance is provided in mountainous terrain by IFR altitudes?

2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within $(4)$ NM of course.

What is the MAA (Maximum Authorized Altitude)?

The highest altitude usable for a route segment that ensures you don't receive two signals on the same frequency.

What are the boundaries of a Victor Airway?

1,200 ft AGL to 17,999 ft MSL, extending 4NM on either side of the centerline.

What is the VOR changeover point (COP)?

The point where a pilot should change navigation from the station behind to the station ahead; usually the midpoint unless Zig-Zagged.

What is the acronym for mandatory IFR Reporting points and what does it mean?

MARVELOUS VFR500: Missed approach, Airspeed change ($\pm 10$ kts or $5\%$), Reaching holding fix, Vacating altitude, ETA change (>3 min), Leaving holding fix, Outer marker, Unforecast weather, Safety of flight, VFR on top altitude change, Final approach fix, Radio/Nav failure, Compulsory points, $(500)$ fpm climb/descent unable.

In a loss of communications scenario, what route should you fly (AVE F)?

Assigned, Vectored, Expected, then Filed.

In a loss of communications scenario, what altitude should you fly (MEA)?

Highest of: Minimum IFR altitude, Expected, or Assigned.

What are the three types of holding pattern entries?

Direct, Parallel, and Teardrop.

What is the standard turn direction in a holding pattern?

Right turns.

What is the maximum holding leg time below $(14,000)$ feet MSL?

1 minute.

What is the maximum holding speed at $(6,000)$ feet MSL and below?

200 KIAS.

What is the maximum holding speed between $(6,001)$ and $(14,000)$ feet MSL?

230 KIAS.

What is a 'Standard Rate Turn'?

3 degrees per second.

What is the rule of thumb for calculating bank angle for a standard rate turn?

$(\frac{TAS}{10}) + 7$.

What does RAIM stand for in GPS navigation?

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring.

How many satellites are required for RAIM detection?

5 satellites.

How many satellites are required for faulty satellite exclusion (FDE)?

6 satellites.

What does WAAS provide to GPS?

Correction signals from ground stations to broad sensors, allowing for vertical guidance (LPV approaches).

What is a 'Precision Approach'?

An instrument approach that provides both lateral and vertical guidance (e.g., ILS).

What is a 'Non-Precision Approach'?

An instrument approach that provides lateral guidance only (e.g., VOR, LNAV, LOC).

What are the segments of an instrument approach?

Initial, Intermediate, Final, and Missed approach segments.

What things are required to descend below MDA or DA per 91.175?

1 Normal decent rate/maneuvers, 2 Flight visibility not less than published, 3 Runway environment in sight.

What constitutes the 'Runway Environment' according to 91.175?

ALS, Threshold, REILs, VASI/PAPI, TDZ lights/markings, Runway lights/markings.

If you see the Approach Light System but not the runway, how far can you descend?

To $(100)$ feet above TDZE.

What is a VDP (Visual Descent Point)?

A defined point on a non-precision straight-in approach from which normal descent from MDA to runway may be commenced.

What are the requirements for a Contact Approach?

Airport has instrument approach procedure (IAP), Ground visibility $(1)$ SM, Clear of clouds, Requested by pilot.

What are the requirements for a Visual Approach?\n\n

Ceiling 1000 ft and 3 SM visibility, pilot has airport or preceding aircraft in sight.\n\n

What are the three stages of a Thunderstorm?

Cumulus, Mature, and Dissipating.

What marks the beginning of the Mature stage of a thunderstorm?

The beginning of precipitation at the surface.

How far should you stay away from a thunderstorm?

At least $(20)$ NM.

What are the conditions necessary for thunderstorm formation?

Sufficient moisture, unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action.

What is 'Rime' icing?

Small drops freeze rapidly upon impact, trapping air and appearing white/opaque.

What is 'Clear' icing?

Large drops freeze slowly and spread over the wing; it is hard, heavy, and difficult to remove.

What does a Convective SIGMET cover?

Severe thunderstorms, surface winds >50 kts, hail >3/4 inch, or tornadoes.

What does AIRMET Sierra indicate?\n\n

IFR conditions and/or extensive mountain obscuration.\n\n

What does AIRMET Tango indicate?

Moderate turbulence, sustained surface winds >30 kts, and/or non-convective low-level wind shear.