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d. 1:1000
a volumetric pipette has an accuracy of:
a. 1:10
b. 1:100
c. 1:500
d. 1:1000
d. Ostwald-Folin pipette
a pipette with a bulb close to the delivery tip is used for viscous fluid and is called:
a. mohr pipette
b. volumetric pipette
c. lewis-dahn pipette
d. ostwald-folin pipette
b. the last drop is to be blown out after the pipettes drains
the etched rings on top of a pipette means:
a. the pipette should be allowed to drain snd the last drop should remain in the pipette
b. the last drop is to be blown out after the pipette drains
c. the pipette is color coded
d. the pipette is a volumetric pipette
b. primary standards
standard solution from which 99.95% of the chemical can be retrieved are referred to as:
a. secondary standards
b. primary standards
c. lyophilized standards
d. preset standards
a. a percent solution can be prepared from a volumetric solution
when preparing solutions:
a. a percent solution can be prepared from a volumetric solution
b. a volumetric solution can be prepared from a percent solution
c. a triple beam balance and cylinder are necessary in the preparation of any type of solution
d. only an analytical balance can be used in a solution preparation
c. saturated
a solution in which the molecules of solute in solution are in equilibrium with excess undissolved molecules is referred to as:
a. dilute
b. concentrated
c. saturated
d. coefficient of variation
b. 7.0
pure water has pH of:
a. 6.8
b. 7.0
c. 7.4
d. 9.0
c. 8
a 1x10^-6 N solution of hydrochloric acid (HCl) has a pH of:
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 12
d. coefficient of variation
the statistical term that most specifically describes analytical precision is the:
a. mode
b. mean
c. median
d. coefficient of variation
b. reliability
quality control should be used with all procedures to determine:
a. accuracy
b. reliability
c. precision
d. coefficient of variation
c. 95.45%
a procedure has a 2 SD variation from a mean value. how many values from a normal population will the 2 SD include:
a. 68.27%
b. 84.76%
c. 95.45%
d. 99.73%
a. control
material with physical and chemical properties closely resembling the test specimen and containing concentrations of the substances being measured is known as:
a. control
b. standard
c. calibrator
d. reference solution
b. directly proportional to the concentration
optical density according to Beer's Law is:
a. inversely proportional to the concentration
b. directly proportional to the concentration
c. proportional to the square of the concentration
d. proportional to the square root of the concentration
c. fibrinogen
the difference between serum and plasma is that serum does not contain:
a. thrombin
b. fibrin
c. fibrinogen
d. calcium
a. mean of normal range and abnormal (high)
two control sera are desirable foe each general chemistry procedure. which of these combinations would be appropriate?
a. mean of normal range and abnormal (high)
b. high abnormal range and abnormal (high)
c. low normal range and abnormal (low)
d. abnormal (low) and abnormal (high)
a. prevent glycolysis
sodium fluoride is used in specimen collection to:
a. prevent glycolysis
b. prevent conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
c. chelate calcium
d. bind calcium
a. 1-2
the concentration of oxalate recommended to be used as an anticoagulant in mg/dl blood is:
a. 1-2
b. 2-4
c. 4-6
d. 6-8
a. chelating calcium
ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid (EDTA) works as anticoagulant by:
a. chelating calcium
b. prevent conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
c. forming an insoluble complex with calcium
d. binding magnesium
c. 70% alcohol
the venipuncture site for a routine puncture is commonly cleaned with:
a. 90% alcohol
b. betadine
c. 70% alcohol
d. quaternary ammonium compounds
c. protect from sunlight
the one precaution to be followed with a specimen for bilirubin determination is to:
a. refrigerate
b. cap and refrigerate
c. protect from sunlight
d. prostatic acid phosphatase
c. lactic dehydrogenase
which of these substances cannot be prevented by freezing?
a. blood urea nitrogen
b. creatine kinase isoenzyme
c. lactic dehydrogenase
d. prostatic acid phosphatase
a. diurnal variation
serim ion should be drawn at the same time on successive days to avoid:
a. diurnal variation
b. chance of consumption of dietary iron
c. effect of medication
d. gastrointestinal adsorption of iron
a. albumin
which of the proteins is soluble in water?
a. albumin
b. beta globulins
c. gamma globulins
d. histones
d. peptide bonding
the alpha-amino acids constitute the basic building blocks of protein. the amino acids are joined together to form a chainlike structure through:
a. disulfide bonding
b. hydrogen bonding
c. covalent bonding
d. peptide bonding
c. nitrogen
which of the four elements in proteins differentiate this class of substance from carbohydrates and lipids?
a. carbon
b. hydrogen
c. nitrogen
d. oxygen
b. glycine
which amino acid cannot rotate polarized light?
a. cystine
b. glycine
c. histidine
d. thionine
c. alteration in tertiary structure
proteins may become denaturated when subjected to mechanical agitation, heat, or extreme chemical treatment. denaturation of proteins refers to an:
a. alteration in primary structure
b. alteration in secondary structure
c. alteration in tertiary structure
d. increase in solubility
c. floatation techniques of Phillips
the hemoglobin measurement technique employed for blood donors is:
a. refractive index
b. hemoglobin electrophoresis
c. floatation techniques of Phillips
d. falling drop technique
b. refractive index
the ration of velocities of light in two different media refer to as:
a. density gradient
b. refractive index
c. rotation of polarized light
d. ultraviolet adsorption
b. albumin
the most anodic protein on electrophoresis at pH 8.6 is:
a. alpha1 globulin
b. albumin
c. beta globulin
d. gamma globulin
a. net zero charge
proteins are dipolar or zwitterion compounds containing both positive and negative charges. when a protein is at its isoelectric point, the protein will have a:
a. net zero charge
b. pH of 7.0
c. net positive charge
d. net negative charge
d. ultracentrifugation
svedberg (S) number refer to protein:
a. electrophoresis
b. flotation
c. precipitation
d. ultracentrifugation
d. 19.0S
the macroglobulins belong to what sedimentation class?
a. 4.5S
b. 7.0S
c. 12.0S
d. 19.0S
c. bence jones protein
as urine is heated, a precipitate appears at 60 C and disappears at 100 C. the present substance is a:
a. macroglobulin
b. cryoglobulin
c. bence jones protein
d. protease
c. salting out
the process of separating albumin from globulins using sodium sulfate is known as:
a. floatation
b. protein precipitation
c. salting out
d. ultracentrifugation
b. 6.54
the conversion of protein nitrogen content to protein content depends on the factor:
a. 6.25
b. 6.54
c. 6.63
d. 6.78
c. is relatively free from interference by lipids and hemoglobin
which of the ff is NOT true of the biuret reaction?
a. follows Beer's law for a reasonable range of protein
b. depends on the presence of at least two peptide linkages
c. is relatively free from interference by lipids and hemoglobin
d. is insensitive to the low protein levels of urine
b. blood urea nitrogen
in acute renal failure which nonprotein nitrogen rises the fastest?
a. uric acid
b. blood urea nitrogen
c. creatinine
d. creatine
d. there is less interference from pigment
why is bromcrescol purple the preferred indicator for albumin dye binding techniques?
a. it lends itself to manual and automated procedures test
b. it never binds with alpha and beta globulins
c. it can be employed with heparinized plasma
d. there is less interference from pigment
d. biuret
which reagent is employed in the serum protein determinant?
a. molybdenum blue
b. ferriferrocyanide
c. resorcinol-HCl
d. biuret
a. hemoglobin is absorbed at the same wavelength as protein of biuret reagent
hemolyzed serum should not be used for total protein because:
a. hemoglobin is absorbed at the same wavelength as protein of biuret reagent
b. of elevated protein amounts in red blood cells compared to serum
c. hemoglobin reacts with biuret reagent
d. the value will be falsely lowered
b. chylomicrons
turbidity in serum is associated with the presence of:
a. cholesterol
b. chylomicrons
c. free fatty acids
d. total lipids
c. galactose and mannose
glycoproteins and mucoproteins are usually bound to:
a. lactose and sucrose
b. lactose and maltose
c. galactose and mannose
d. glucose and sucrose
d. cryoglobulin
all of the following are glycoproteins except:
a. ceruloplasmin
b. follicle stimulating hormonne
c. fibrinogen
d. cryoglobulin
c. they contain more than 4% hexosamine
which of these statements is not applicable to mucoproteins?
a. they are proteins complexed with carbohydrates
b. they are related to glycoproteins
c. they contain more than 4% hexosamine
d. hormones and coagulation proteins are included in this class
d. five
how many immunoglobulin classes are currently recognized?
a. one
b. three
c. four
d. five
b. excess antibody and constant trough distance between antibody and antigen
when performing an immunoglobulin electrophoresis, there must be present:
a. excess antigen
b. excess antibody and constant trough distance between antibody and antigen
c. acetate matrix
d. direct current
b. monoclonal gammopathy
a normal serum protein electrophoresis has approx. 60% albumin and 5-10% each of the other 4 fractions. if an electrophoretic pattern shows 30% albumin, 4-10% of other fractions except gamma which is 45%, you would expect what condition to exist in the patient?
a. cirrhosis
b. monoclonal gammopathy
c. inflammation
d. chronic lymphocyctic leukemia
a. they are temperature-sensitive proteins
which of the ff applies to cryoglobulins?
a. they are temperature-sensitive proteins
b. the blood specimen should not clot at room temp
c. the sample unit must remain at room temp so that precipitation can be observed
d. only qualitative tests are available
c. it is produced in the liver
which of the following statement is true of albumin?
a. compared to globulin, it makes up the lesser portion of total protein
b. its size prevents its passage through even damaged glomerular barrier
c. it is produced in the liver
d. clinical problems are usually related to high serum values
b. biuret reagent with trichloroacetic acid pretreatment of urine
to measure urinary protein you can use:
a. biuret reagent
b. biuret reagent with trichloroacetic acid pretreatment of urine
c. bromcrescol purple
d. bromcrescol green
d. elevated blood urea nitrogen, 10x creatinine value
an elevated creatinine value is most likely to be accompanied by which of these value?
a. normal uric acid
b. elevated uric acid, 10x creatinine value
c. normal blood urea nitrogen
d. elevated blood urea nitrogen, 10x creatinine value
b. 2.14
the conversion factor for blood urea nitrogen to urea is:
a. 1.10
b. 2.14
c. 3.14
d. 6.25
a. ammonia
by the urease method, urea is enzymatically converted to:
a. ammonia
b. carbon dioxide
c. nitrogen
d. amino groups
b. The method is not measuring ammonia
Why can untreated urine be used for the determination of urea by diacetyl monoxime method?
a. Dialysis in an auto analyzer removes interfering substances
b. The method is not measuring ammonia
c. The increased temperature destroys the ammonia
d. Zinc does not interfere
c. muscle destruction
urinary creatinine may be elevated in which of the following?
a. kidney failure
b. cirrhosis of the liver
c. muscle destruction
d. intestinal blockage
a. alkaline picrate
the measurement of creatinine is based on the formation of the yellow-red color with:
a. alkaline picrate
b. ehrlich's reagent
c. phosphomolybdate
d. titan yellow
a. jaffe
the classic creatinine reaction is that of:
a. jaffe
b. lloyd
c. kjeldahl
d. nessler
a. adsorption with lloyd's reagent
the specificity of the jaffe reaction can be enhanced by:
a. adsorption with lloyd's reagent
b. boiling
c. prior treatment with urease
d. prior treatment with uricase
d. gout
a disease state associated with an elevation of serum uric acid:
a. atherosclerosis
b. arthritis
c. diabetes
d. gout
b. phosphotungstic acid
the most common reagent employed in uric acid methodology by alkaline oxidation is:
a. potassium permanganate
b. phosphotungstic acid
c. potassium persulfate
d. hydrochloric acid (HCl)
a. ultraviolet absorption peak at 290 nm before and after treatment with uricase
the uricase method for uric acid assay depends on:
a. ultraviolet absorption peak at 290 nm before and after treatment with uricase
b. collection of evolved gas after uricase treatment
c. increase in absorption after uricase treatment
d. measurement of blue-violet color
b. gasometric ninhydrin reaction
the most precise method for amino acid determination:
a. isothermal distillation
b. gasometric ninhydrin reaction
c. alkaline oxidation
d. color development with berthelot reagent
a. overall kidney function
the urea clearance test is an indication of:
a. overall kidney function
b. tubular reabsorption
c. tubular function
d. glomerular filtration
a. passes to the ultrafiltrate
the creatinine clearance is based on the assumption that creatinine:
a. passes to the ultrafiltrate
b. is retained in the blood
c. is convterted to creatinine
d. is passively reabsorbed by the kidney tubule
a. inulin
which of the clearance test offers the most accurate measure of glomerular filtration:
a. inulin
b. creatinine
c. urea
d. p-aminohippurate (PAH)
c. 60.0
a creatinine clearance test is performed. the 24-hour volume of urine is 770 ml; serum creatinine is 2.0 mg/dl
and urine creatinine is 240 mg/dl. what is the clearance expressed in ml plasma cleared per minute, assuming average body surface?
a. 6.0
b. 38.4
c. 60.0
d. 924.0
d. freezing point depression
the usual determination of osmolality involves measurement of:
a. pCO2 and pO2
b. Na and K
c. electrolytes
d. freezing point depression
d. in GTT, one may be faced with a normal blood glucose accompanied by a positive urine glucose
which of the ff is true of blood glucose?
a. the renal threshold is 200-240 mg/dl
b. once excreted in the glomerular filtrate, glucose must be excreted in the urine
c. a high blood glucose must be associated with a positive urine glucose
d. in GTT, one may be faced with a normal blood glucose accompanied by a positive urine glucose
d. 3 hour glucose tolerance test
patients with borderline blood glucose levels are further investigated by performing:
a. postprandial sugar (PPS)
b. fasting blood sugar
c. inulin tolerance test
d. 3 hour glucose tolerance test
c. hemoglobin A1C
the test that gives a 2 to 3 month picture of a diabetic's glucose level is:
a. hgb A1
b. 2 hour postprandial sugar
c. hemoglobin A1C
d. 3 hour glucose tolerance test
d. all of the above
which of the ff precautions is necessary to insure validity of the glucose tolerance test?
a. a 150 gram/day carbohydrate diet for 3 days prior to test
b. a fasting state before glucose is given
c. no undue stress before or during the test
d. all of the above
c. glucose oxidase
contamination of the glucose reagent with catalase is a problem with which glucose method?
a. alkaline cupric ion reduction (neocuprine)
b. alkaline ferric ion reduction (ferricyanide)
c. glucose oxidase
d. hexokinase
a. reduced coenzyme read at 340 nm
the hexokinase methodology for glucose determination is based on:
a. reduced coenzyme read at 340 nm
b. rose pink color of oxygen-o-diansidine
c. peroxidase acting upon H2O2 release from glucose
d. protein free filtrate
a. tungstic method
proteins are precipitated by which of the following reagents in Folin-Wu method?
a. tungstic method
b. trichloroacetic acid
c. sulfuric acid
d. hydrochloric acid
c. zinc barium precipitation
the interfering reducing substances in the Folin-Wu glucose method may be removed by:
a. dialysis
b. tungstate precipitation
c. zinc barium precipitation
d. heating
b. molybdenum blue
in the copper reduction method for glucose, measurable color is developed through formation of:
a. copper sulfate
b. molybdenum blue
c. copper cobalt complex
d. phosphomolybdenum
d. reduction of alkaline ferricyanide to ferrocyanide
the most frequently employed automated method for glucose uses:
a. coupled enzyme system consisting of glucose oxidase and catalase
b. reduction of alkaline cupric ion
c. addition of molybdenum blue
d. reduction of alkaline ferricyanide to ferrocyanide
b. grey
when sugars are separated by chromatography, the application of anisaldehyde/sulfuric acid/ethyl alcohol spray will identify galactose as what color spot?
a. blue
b. grey
c. lactose
d. yellow
d. fructose
seliwanoff's test detects:
a. dextrose
b. glucose
c. lactose
d. fructose
a. intestinal malabsorption
The xylose tolerance test is a measure of:
a. intestinal malabsorption
b. renal clearance
c. pancreatic secretion
d. liver failure
a. albumin
prehepatic bilirubin has which of the ff for a protein carrier?
a. albumin
b. alpha2 globulin
c. beta globulin
d. gamma globulin
c. hemoglobin breakdown
an increase in indirect reacting bilirubin is suggestive of:
a. bile acid build-up
b. lipid accumulation
c. hemoglobin breakdown
d. gamma globulinemia
c. bilirubin diglucuronide
direct-reacting bilirubin is:
a. free bilirubin
b. bilirubin bound to albumin
c. bilirubin diglucuronide
d. bilirubin bound to red blood cells
c. urobilinogen
bilirubin is converted in the intestines to which of the following:
a. porphobilinogen
b. hemoglobin
c. urobilinogen
d. phospholipid
b. hemolysis
which of the following will interfere with the evelyn and malloy method for bilirubin?
a. lipemia
b. hemolysis
c. anticonvulsants
d. alcohol
a. porphyrins
the "port wine" color of some urines can be attributed to:
a. porphyrins
b. melanin
c. red blood cells
d. bilirubin
a. ehrlich
para-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde is a constituent of which reagent?
a. ehrlich
b. salkowski
c. drabkin
d. bloor
d. solubility of urobilinogen with chloroform
both porphobilinogen and urobilinogen form a red colored compound with ehrlich's reagent. differentiation can be obtained by:
a. solubility of porphobilinogen in chloroform
b. solubility of urobilinogen in water
c. difference in UV absorption
d. solubility of urobilinogen with chloroform
c. methyl alcohol
bilirubin will develop a violet color after which of the ff is added:
a. hydrochloric acid
b. ehrlich's reagent
c. methyl alchohol
d. van den bergh's reagent
c. bilirubin
a urine specimen that exhibits yellow foam on being shaken should be suspected of having an increased concentration of:
a. ketones
b. glucose
c. bilirubin
d. nitrite
a. biological catalyst
an enzyme may be defined as a/an:
a. biological catalyst
b. inorganic catalyst
c. metal catalyst
d. large molecule of biological impt.
d. aspartate aminotransferase
hemolysis will interfere with all of the ff enzyme measurement except:
a. alkaline phosphatase
b. lactate dehydrogenase
c. aldolase
d. aspartate aminotransferase
a. obstructive jaundice
a high alkaline phosphatase level in the presence of other negative liver function tests is indicative of:
a. obstructive jaundice
b. hepatitis
c. carcinoma of the liver
d. hemolytic disorder
a. act as an activator of the enzyme
a metal ion is sometimes necessary in an enzymatic reaction to:
a. act as an activator of the enzyme
b. permit the colorimetric reaction to occur
c. regulate pH
d. inhibit competing enzymes
c. the electrophoretic property is different for each isoenzyme
which of the following is a true of an isoenzyme?
a. the substrate is different from each isoenzyme
b. the rate of reaction is the same for each enzyme with its own substrate
c. the electrophoretic property is different for each isoenzyme
d. any of a group of isoenzyme will react the same to heat denaturation
a. almost doubles
as the temperature is increased from 25 C to 37 C in the aspartate aminotransferase reaction, the activity of the reaction.
a. almost doubles
b. is halved
c. is tripled
d. is reduced to zero
b. substrate conc. and rate of dissociation of enzyme substrate complex
the michaelis-menten constant in the rate conversion of substrate to product is determined by:
a. substrate concentration
b. substrate conc. and rate of dissociation of enzyme substrate complex
c. temp, pH and substrate conc
d. temp and pH
c. all enzyme is bound to substrate
in a zero order reaction, there will be no further increase in velocity because:
a. there is no excess substrate
b. the temp is 35 C
c. all enzyme is bound to substrate
d. there is excess enzyme
c. glycerides
lipase catalyzes the hydrolysis of:
a. starch
b. gelatin
c. glycerides
d. sugar