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Ethically competent practitioners should do which? 1. Provide care with respect/dignity 2. Protect privacy 3. Reveal confidential info whenever convenient
1 and 2
Morals are described by which? 1. Guided by conscience 2. Include honesty/fairness/compassion 3. Controlled only by government
1 and 2
Laws are described by which? 1. Legal requirements 2. Controlled by government 3. May involve criminal cases
1, 2, and 3
Code of ethics expectations include which? 1. Maintain confidentiality 2. Follow ALARA 3. Keep skills current
1, 2, and 3
ARRT ethical concerns include which? 1. Practicing outside scope 2. Unsafe practice from alcohol/drugs/illness 3. Appropriate continuing competence
1 and 2
Precertification is usually NOT needed for which unless alcohol/drugs are involved? 1. Juvenile conviction in juvenile court 2. Speeding violation 3. Parking violation
1, 2, and 3
Precertification may be required for which? 1. Guilty plea 2. No contest plea 3. Deferred/suspended judgment
1, 2, and 3
Patient rights include which? 1. Respectful care 2. Privacy/modesty 3. Right to refuse
1, 2, and 3
A patient asking about diagnosis/treatment should be referred to whom? 1. Physician 2. Technologist's opinion 3. Another patient
1 only
Informed consent requires which? 1. Procedure/risks explained 2. Patient competent to sign 3. Completed before sedation/anesthesia
1, 2, and 3
Consent for minors/mentally incompetent patients is signed by whom? 1. Parent/legal guardian for minor 2. Legal guardian for mentally incompetent patient 3. Any staff member
1 and 2
Consent may be revoked when? 1. Any time 2. Only before entering department 3. Only if technologist agrees
1 only
DNR/death-with-dignity considerations include which? 1. Know your patient 2. Check chart 3. Be aware of durable medical power of attorney
1, 2, and 3
Torts are described by which? 1. Civil wrongdoing 2. Personal injury law 3. Always criminal law
1 and 2
Personal injury categories include which? 1. Intentional misconduct 2. Negligence 3. Unintentional misconduct
1, 2, and 3
Intentional misconduct includes which? 1. Assault 2. Battery 3. False imprisonment
1, 2, and 3
Assault is described by which? 1. A threat 2. Threatened harmful touch 3. Actual touching without consent
1 and 2
Battery is described by which? 1. Unlawful touching 2. Touching without consent 3. Radiography against patient's will
1, 2, and 3
False imprisonment is described by which? 1. Unjustifiable detention 2. Not letting patient leave 3. Restraints without proper order
1, 2, and 3
Invasion of privacy may include which? 1. Confidentiality violation 2. Improper exposure/touching 3. Photographing without permission
1, 2, and 3
Libel and slander differ how? 1. Libel is written 2. Slander is verbal 3. Both can damage reputation
1, 2, and 3
Fraud may involve which? 1. Wrong processing algorithm 2. Altering exposure indicator 3. Cropping/masking anatomy postexposure
1, 2, and 3
Negligence is described by which? 1. Omission of reasonable care 2. Omission of caution 3. Reasonably prudent person doctrine
1, 2, and 3
Gross negligence means which? 1. Reckless disregard for life/limb 2. More serious negligence 3. Patient contributed to injury
1 and 2
Contributory negligence means which? 1. Patient behavior contributed 2. Employer alone caused injury 3. May affect liability
1 and 3
Malpractice conditions include which? 1. Duty to provide reasonable care 2. Standard of care violated 3. Loss/injury caused and occurred
1, 2, and 3
Respondeat superior means which? 1. Let the master answer 2. Employer may be liable for employee negligence 3. Worker never responsible
1 and 2
Personal responsibility means which? 1. Individuals responsible for actions 2. Shared liability can occur 3. Only hospital is responsible
1 and 2
Malpractice claims may involve which? 1. Professional misconduct 2. Incompetence 3. Lack of skills
1, 2, and 3
The 7 C's of malpractice prevention include which? 1. Competence 2. Communication 3. Consent
1, 2, and 3
Implied consent means which? 1. Inferred from actions 2. Clearly stated by speech/gesture 3. Signed after risk explanation
1 only
Express consent means which? 1. Clearly stated 2. May be oral or clear gesture 3. Broad permission on admission only
1 and 2
HIPAA stands for which? 1. Health Insurance 2. Portability and Accountability 3. Act
1, 2, and 3
PHI means which? 1. Private health information 2. Individually identifiable health information 3. Information that can identify the patient/image
1, 2, and 3
HIPAA privacy rules include which? 1. Do not ask unless needed 2. Share minimum necessary 3. Protect PHI
1, 2, and 3
HIPAA violation consequences may include which? 1. Program termination 2. Fine 3. Jail time
1, 2, and 3
FERPA rights include which? 1. Inspect records 2. Request correction 3. File complaint
1, 2, and 3
Due process includes which? 1. Written reasons 2. Formal hearing notice 3. Chance to answer charges
1, 2, and 3
Medical imaging patient safety goals include which? 1. Radiation safety 2. Patient identification 3. Infection control
1, 2, and 3