NBDHE Darby and Walsh 9th Edition Comprehensive Review Questions

The tissue(s) that have nerve innervation are:

a. Dentin

b. Pulp and dentin

c. Pulp and periodontal ligament

d. Cementum

e. All of the above

C. The pulp and the periodontal ligament have nerve innervation.

The free unmyelinated nerve endings of the pulp can sense:

a. Hot

b. Cold

c. Pressure

d. Pain

e. All of the above

D. The free unmyelinated nerve endings of the pulp tissue can sense pain only. It cannot distinguish between hot or cold. It cannot distinguish the sensation of pressure. All stimuli are interpreted as a pain perception. The encapsulated nerve endings are responsible for registering pressure changes

Nonsuccedaneous permanent molars develop from buds that grow from:

a. A successional dental lamina.

b. Primary tooth buds.

c. The posterior part of palatal shelves.

d. Extension of the primary second molar's dental lamina.

D. Six permanent molars per dental arch develop from a posterior extension of the dental lamina

What is the angled part of the ameloblast that secretes the enamel matrix?

a. Inner enamel epithelium

b. Repolarized preameloblasts

c. Tomes' process

d. Disintegrating basement membrane

C. The enamel matrix is directly secreted from Tomes process

The pink labial mucosa or buccal mucosa meets the redder _____ at the mucobuccal fold.

a. Marginal gingiva

b. Attached gingiva

c. Alveolar mucosa

C. The pink labial mucosa or buccal mucosa meets the redder alveolar mucosa at the mucobuccal fold deep with the vestibular fornix.

The outer cells of the dental papilla are induced to differentiate during tooth development into:

a. Pulp tissue

b. Preameloblasts

c. Odontoblasts

d. Cementoblast

C. Outer cells differentiate into dentin-secreting cells, odontoblasts

Which stage of tooth formation occurs for the primary dentition during the 11th and 12th week of prenatal development?

a. Bell Stage

b. Initiation Stage

c. Cap Stage

d. Bud Stage

A. The eleventh and twelfth week of prenatal development is the fourth stage of

Odontogenesis the Bell Stage

What is connective tissue derived from during prenatal development?

a. Ectoderm

b. Endoderm

c. Neural crest cells

d. Mesoderm

D. Connective tissue is derived from Mesoderm during prenatal development

Enamel _____form the crystalline structural unit of enamel.

a. Tubules

b. Granules

c. Rods

d. Cuticles

C. Structural unit of Enamel

The patient's mother was informed the multiple carious lesions caries on her maxillary molars had progressed into the dentin. Caries in the dentin of the tooth progresses through the

a. Interglobular dentin

b. Dentinal tubule

c. Secondary dentin

d. Predentin

B. Bacteria smaller than dentinal tubules enter the tubules and destroy the odontoblastic processes (dentinal fibers) and follow the course to pulp.

Enamel hypocalcification is a type of enamel dysplasia that involves:

a. an increased number of ameloblasts

b. reduction in the quantity of enamel matrix

c. grooves and pitting on the enamel surface

d. interference in the metabolic processes of ameloblasts

B.

reduction in the quantity of enamel matrix

During the 4th week of embryonic life, the tongue develops from several swellings arising on the internal aspect of brachial arches 1-4 (pouches). Which swellings form the body of the tongue?

a. Branchial arch 1

b. Branchial arches 2, 3, and part of 4

c. Branchial arch 4

d. Thyroid gland

A. Branchial arch 1 forms two lateral swellings and one medial swelling (tuberculum impar) to form the body of the tongue

What histologic structure(s) comprise(s) healthy attached gingiva?

a. Circular fibers

b. Rete pegs

c. Connective tissue papilla

d. Fibroblasts

e. All of the above

e. All of the above

What type of epithelium comprises attached gingiva?

a. Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

b. Nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium

c. Keratinized simple squamous epithelium

d. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

e. Nonkeratinized simple squamous epithelium

A. Attached gingiva is composed of keratinized (orthokeratinized) stratified squamous epithelium.

A cleft lip occurs when the maxillary process fails to fuse with which one of the following embryonic processes?

a. Palatine process

b. Globular process (medial nasal process)

c. Lateral nasal process

d. Mandibular process

e. Opposing maxillary process

B. Cleft lip occurs when the maxillary process fails to fuse with the globular process. The maxillary process forms the sides of the lip, and the globular process (medial nasal process) forms the center or philtrum of the lip. A cleft lip can occur on one side (e.g., the right maxillary process fails to fuse with the globular process), or on both sides (e.g., the right and left maxillary processes fail to fuse with the globular process).

Embryonically, the mandible is derived from the:

a. Stomodeum

b. First branchial arch

c. Frontal process

d. Second branchial arch

e. Third branchial arch

B. The first branchial arch gives rise to a large portion of the face and the intraoral structures. The mandible is derived from the first branchial arch.

The anterior portion, or body, of the tongue develops from the:

a. Second branchial arch

b. Maxillary process

c. Mandibular process

d. Globular process (medial nasal process)

e. Rathke's pouch

C. The mandibular process gives rise to the body of the tongue. Maxillary processes arise from the superolateral border of the first branchial arch. Once this occurs, the rest of the first branchial arch is referred to as the mandibular process. From the mandibular process (first branchial arch), two lateral swellings and one medial swelling (tuberculum impar) merge to form the body of the tongue.

Which of the following orofacial structures is located in the midline of the face or neck?

a. Philtrum

b. Submandibular salivary gland

c. Naris and ala

d. Parotid salivary gland

A. The nasal septum is a vertical groove on the midline of the upper lip

Continuous replacement of cells is characteristic of which type of epithelium?

a. Simple squamous

b. Stratified squamous

c. Pseudo-stratified columnar

d. Stratified transitional

B. Continuous replace of cells is a characteristic of stratified squamous epithelium. The cells of the basal layer constantly under mitosis, and the surface cells slough off as new cells move to the surface.

When a cleft of the alveolar process is present, it occurs between the

a. First and second premolars

b. Central incisors

c. Lateral incisor and canine

d. Canine and first premolar

C. A cleft of the alveolar ridge results from the lack of fusion of the premaxilla, which forms the anterior portion of the palate and gives rise to the maxillary incisors, and of the lateral palatine processes (palatal shelves), which give rise to the posterior two thirds of the hard palate and contain the maxillary canines and posterior teeth. The lines of fusion, therefore, fall between the laterals and the canine teeth.

The overlapping period between the primary and permanent dentition is considered the period of:

a. Primary

b. Secondary

c. Tertiary

d. Mixed

D. A mixed dentition is one with primary and secondary teeth

During the cell cycle, interphase involves the cells engaging in:

a. Chromatin removal

b. Organelle replication

c. Centromere reduction

d. Substance destruction

B. within interphase engage in growth, metabolism, organelle replacement, and substance production, including chromatin and centrosome replication.

Meckel's cartilage is derived from neural crest cells which migrate cephalad and interact with cephalic ectoderm and mesoderm to result in the development of:

a. Facial skeleton

b. Neck Skeleton

c. Connective tissue components

d. Tooth development

A. Facial skeleton is derived from Meckel's cartilage

Each germ cell contains ____ chromosomes (haploid number); during the process of fertilization, the number is restored to ____ chromosomes (diploid).

a. 22, 45

b. 21, 44

c. 20, 43

d. 23, 46

D. 23, 46 haploid and diploid numbers

Each tooth is the product of two tissues that interact during tooth development:

a. Epithelium, ectomesenchyme

b. Endoderm, epithelium

c. Ectomesenchyme, endoderm

d. Mesenchyme, ectoderm

A. Each tooth is the product of Epithelium, Ectomesenchyme

A connective tissue graft from the hard palate area was recommended for the gingival recession. What type of epithelial tissue is in this area?

a. Nonkeratinized simple squamous epithelium

b. Keratinized simple squamous epithelium

c. Orthokeratinized stratified squamous epithelium

d. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

e. Nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium

C. Orthokeratinized stratified squamous epithelium

A graft procedure would include a surgical flap in the epithelial tissue of the palate and harvesting the underlying connective tissue. The connective tissue would be placed in the recipient site. What type of connective tissue is usually found underlying the gingiva?

a. Loose connective tissue

b. Dense connective tissue

c. Mixed connective tissue

d. Cannot be determined

B. Dense connective tissue

All of the following tissues have little or no keratinization, except one. Which one is this exception?

a. Attached gingiva

b. Sulcular epithelium

c. Alveolar mucosa

d. Soft palate

A. Attached gingiva

Which of the following is not a component of the periodontium?

a. Gingiva

b. Crown

c. Periodontal ligament

d. Alveolar bone

B. crown is not a supporting structure of the periodontium, it is an anatomical structure of the tooth

Which of the following is not a histological component of the gingival connective tissue?

a. Enamel

b. Lymphatic tissues

c. Collagen fibers

d. Blood cells

A. enamel is the substance that covers the anatomic crown of the tooth, it is the hardest substance in the body. It is created by cells known as ameloblasts.

Which tissue surrounds the tooth and creates a cuff of gingiva extending coronally approximately 1.5 mm from the CEJ?

a. Periodontal ligament

b. Free gingiva

c. Attached gingiva

d. Oral mucosa

B. free gingiva surrounds the tooth and creates a cuff or collar of gingiva

What are the clinical observations noted during an examination of the gingiva indicating gingival health?

a. Loosely attached gingiva

b. Firm attached gingiva

c. Purple-colored gingiva

d. Inflamed gingiva

B. firm attached gingiva is healthy gingiva and will have a snug, firm attachment to the underlying supporting structures. The gingival margin follows a scalloped-like course across the dentition due to the interdental papillae, which fill the interdental spaces beneath the tooth contacts

What relationship does tooth size have on the interdental papilla?

a. The smaller the tooth the larger the papilla

b. The larger the tooth the smaller the papilla

c. The larger the tooth the larger the papilla

d. Tooth size does not relate to papilla size

D. tooth size does not relate to papilla size

The inner and outer surfaces of alveolar bone are made up of ________________.

a. Spongy bone

b. Cortical plates

c. Cementum

d. Oblique fibers

B. Cortical plates make up the inner and outer dense surfaces of the alveolar bone

The wall of the tooth socket is lined by what type of bone?

a. Trabecular

b. Dentin

c. Lamina Dura

d. Cancellous

C. Lamina Dura is a thin dense bone where the periodontal ligament is attached

The tooth is attached to the underlying bone through which of the following?

a. Periodontal fibers

b. Attached gingiva

c. Cementum

d. Interradicular bone

A. Periodontal fibers attach the root of the tooth to the cementum and bone. a series of periodontal fibers that make up the periodontal ligament and allow for minor movement of the tooth in the socket without damage to the tooth or the underlying structures. These fibers are classified apical, oblique, horizontal, alveolar crest and interradicular fibers

Which tooth appears in the permanent dentition but not in the primary?

a. Molars

b. Lateral Incisors

c. Central Incisors

d. Premolars

D. Premolars are not present in the primary dentition. There are eight premolars in the permanent dentition.

Which one of the tooth components has an equivalent hardness to bone?

a. Cementum

b. Enamel

c. Dentin

d. Dentin Tubules

B. Enamel is the substance that covers the anatomic crown of the tooth, it is the hardest substance in the body. It is created by cells known as ameloblasts.

What attachment mechanism attaches the cells in the basal layer of stratified squamous epithelium?

a. Desmosome

b. Hemidesmosome

c. Gap

d. Tight

A. Cells are attached to other cells by a desmosome attachment.

Which of the following are characteristics of bundle bone?

a. Covered by endosteum

b. Adjacent to periodontal ligament and adjacent to fatty marrow

c. Adjacent to fatty marrow and covered by endosteum

d. Contains Sharpey's fibers and is adjacent to periodontal ligament

D. Bundle bone is adjacent to the periodontal ligament. It contains one end of the Sharpey's fibers.

What type of cells are found in Howship's lacunae?

a. Osteocytes

b. Osteoclasts

c. Cementocytes

d. Cementoblasts

B. Howship's lacunae are found in areas of resorbed bone. The bone-resorbing cells (osteoclasts) are found in these hollowed out depressions that the osteoclasts created.

What is the name of the space occupied by the body of the cementocyte?

a. Lamellae

b. Lacuna

c. Canaliculi

d. Cementicle

B. The space occupied by a cementocyte is called a lacuna, meaning "little space."

Cementum differs from bone in that cementum:

a. Contains cells

b. Has no blood vessels

c. Is 50% inorganic and 50%organic

d. Resorbs more readily

B. Cementum is different from bone in that cementum contains no blood vessels; bone is a vascular tissue.

What is the name for the outer, less-calcified layer of cementum?

a. Cellular cementum

b. Acellular cementum

c. Cementoid

d. Cementicles

C. Cementoid is the outer less-calcified layer of cemental tissue. It is the layer of organic matrix that was most recently laid down. This cementoid layer results in cementum resorbing less readily than bone.

What name is given to the remnants of Hertwig's epithelial root sheath found in the periodontal ligament of a functioning tooth?

a. Enamel pearls

b. Denticles

c. Rests of Malassez

d. Cementicles

C. The Rests of Malassez are remnants of Hertwig's epithelial root sheath that remain in the periodontal ligament space following root formation. They are the source of cyst formation.

The crystalline formation of mature bone consists of mainly which of the following?

a. Calcium hydroxyapatite

b. Osteoid

c. Osteocytes

d. Canaliculi

A. It is this inorganic substance in a crystalline formation of mainly calcium hydroxyapatite that gives bone its hardness

What tissue component of the periodontal ligament is responsible for the production of the fibrous matrix and ground substance?

a. Osteoblast

b. Cementoblast

c. Odontoblast

d. Fibroblast

D. The Fibroblasts of the periodontal ligament is responsible for the production of the fibrous matrix and ground substance; they build and produce new fibers which remodel existing fibers.

Which portion of the tooth germ is the primary source of the periodontal ligament?

a. Dental follicle

b. Herwig's epithelial root sheath

c. Stratum intermedium

d. Central cells of dental papilla

A. dental follicle is the tooth germ and three embryological structures the enamel organ, dental papilla, and dental sac

The upper deep cervical nodes primarily drain all except:

a. Tonsils

b. Base of the tongue

c. Third molars

d. Soft palate

D. Soft Palate is drained by the retropharyngeal nodes

Pulp changes result from aging. Changes result from:

a. Increased collagen fibers

b. True denticles

c. False denticles

d. Diffuse calcification

A. Increased collagen fibers are present as teeth age

The term used to describe structures located toward the surface of the body is:

a. Superficial

b. Proximal

c. Distal

d. Deep

e. Anterior

A. Superficial refers to structures located toward the body surface

The term that describes a window-like opening in the bone is:

a. Canal

b. Meatus

c. Foramen

d. Fissure

C. A foramen (plural foramina) is a short, window-like opening in a bone (e.g., incisive foramen)

Each of the following bones are cranial bones EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

a. Occipital bone

b. Sphenoid bone

c. Ethmoid bone

d. Frontal bone

e. Zygomatic bone

E. The zygomatic bone is a paired facial bone

The horizontal plates of the palatine bones articulate with each other to form the posterior portion of the hard palate. An important landmark for the administration of local anesthesia found here is:

a. Incisive foramen

b. Greater palatine foramen

c. Infraorbital foramen

d. Mental foramen

B. The greater palatine foramen is located in the posterolateral region of each of the palatine bones, usually distal to the third molar; it transmits the greater palatine nerve and is a landmark for the administration of local anesthesia

The sphenoid bone is important to dental professionals because it has processes that serve as part of the attachment for two of the four pairs of the muscles of mastication. The sphenoid bone also has formina that are the passageway for important nerves and blood vessels of the head and neck.

a. Both statements are TRUE

b. Both statements are FALSE

c. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE

d. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE

A. Both statements are true

The paired hypoglossal canals that are openings for cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve) are formed by which of the following bones?

a. Sphenoid bone

b. Occipital bone

c. Maxilla

d. Mandible

B. The occipital bone is a single bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull; it has paired hypoglossal canals that are the openings for cranial nerve XII or the hypoglossal nerve

Cranial Nerve VII, or the facial nerve, exits the skull through the:

a. External acoustic meatus

b. Superior orbital fissure

c. Internal acoustic meatus

d. Cribriform plate

7. C. Cranial Nerve VII (facial nerve) exits the skull through the internal acoustic meatus

All of the following features are located on the temporal bone EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

a. Pterygoid process

b. Mastoid process

c. External acoustic meatus

d. Jugular notch

A. The pterygoid process is a long process projecting downward from the junction of the body and greater wing of the sphenoid bone; formed by two plates

The maxillary tuberosity is a landmark for the administration of local anesthesia to which of the following?

a. Lesser palatine nerve

b. Infraorbital nerve

c. Nasopalatine nerve

d. Posterior superior alveolar nerve

D. The maxillary tuberosity is located just posterior to the most distal maxillary molar and is perforated by one or more foramina where the posterior superior alveolar nerve and blood vessels enter the bone

Which of the following landmarks is used to locate the hyoid bone?

a. Thyroid cartilage

b. First cervical vertebra

c. Second cervical vertebra

d. Lingula

A. The hyoid bone of the neck is located superior and anterior to the thyroid cartilage

All of the following paranasal sinuses drain into the middle meatus of the nasal cavity EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a. Posterior ethmoidal sinuses

b. Anterior ethmoidal sinuses

c. Frontal sinuses

d. Maxillary sinuses

A. The posterior compartment of the ethmoid sinuses drains into the superior nasal meatus

The origin of muscle is a fixed attachment. The insertion of muscle is a less moveable structure.

a. Both statements are TRUE

b. Both statements are FALSE

c. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE

d. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE

C. The first statement is true, the second statement is false; the insertion of muscle is a more moveable structure, during muscle contraction, the insertion moves toward the origin

Difficulty in accessing the lower anterior teeth during instrumentation is caused by contraction of which of the following muscles?

a. Mentalis muscle

b. Zygomaticus major muscle

c. Depressor anguli oris muscle

d. Levator anguli oris muscle

A. The mentalis muscle raises the chin and narrows the vestibule near the mandibular incisors

The muscle of facial expression that assists the muscles of mastication during chewing is the

a. Risorius muscle

b. Mentalis muscle

c. Buccinator muscle

d. Orbicularis oris muscle

C. The buccinator muscle, although considered a muscle of facial expression, assists in the process of mastication by keeping food pushed back on the occlusal surface of teeth

Each of the following is a muscle of mastication EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a. Masseter muscle

b. Buccinator muscle

c. Temporalis muscle

d. Lateral pterygoid muscle

B. The buccinator muscle is a muscle of facial expression that assists the muscles of mastication

Contraction of both sternocleidomastoid muscles causes which of the following?

a. Face and front of the neck to rotate to the opposite side

b. Neck skin to be raised

c. Head and neck to be bent to the same side

d. Head to flex at the neck

D. Contraction of both sternocleidomastoid muscles causes the head to flex at the neck and extend at the junction between the neck and skull

Which of the following muscles originates partially from the maxillary tuberosity?

a. Masseter muscle

b. Medial pterygoid muscle

c. Lateral pterygoid muscle

d. Temporalis muscle

B. The medial (internal) pterygoid muscle originates from two heads; the superficial head arises from the maxillary tuberosity; the deep head from the lateral pterygoid plate and the pterygoid fossa

The only muscle of mastication that depresses the mandible or opens the mouth is which of the following?

a. Masseter muscle

b. Medial pterygoid muscle

c. Lateral pterygoid muscle

d. Temporalis muscle

C. The lateral pterygoid muscle is the only muscle of mastication that depresses the mandible; all of the other muscles of mastication elevate the mandible

All the following are suprahyoid muscles EXEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a. Geniohyoid muscle

b. Stylohyoid muscle

c. Thyrohyoid muscle

d. Digastric muscle

C. The thyrohyoid muscle is an infrahyoid muscle that acts to depress the hyoid bone; it also raises the thyroid cartilage and larynx

Deviation of the mandible to one side during protrusion is caused by which of the following?

a. Contraction of both lateral pterygoid muscles

b. Contraction of the temporalis muscle

c. Contraction of the masseter muscle

d. Contraction of one lateral pterygoid muscle

D. If only one lateral pterygoid muscle is contracted, the lower jaw shifts to the opposite side causing the mandible to deviate laterally

The muscles of facial expression are innervated by

a. Cranial Nerve VII, facial nerve

b. Cranial Nerve XI, accessory nerve

c. Cranial Nerve X, vagus nerve

d. Cranial Nerve V3, trigeminal nerve, mandibular division

A. The muscles of facial expression are innervated by the facial nerve, CN VII

The intrinsic muscles of the tongue originate and insert inside the tongue while the extrinsic muscles originate elsewhere and insert inside the tongue. Both extrinsic and intrinsic muscles are innervated by the hypoglossal nerve.

a. Both statements are TRUE

b. Both statements are FALSE

c. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE

d. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE

A. Both statements are true; the intrinsic muscles of the tongue originate and insert into the tongue; the extrinsic muscles of the tongue originate from bone and insert into the tongue. Both extrinsic and intrinsic muscles are innervated by the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

Which one of the following structures prevents posterior and inferior displacement of the mandible?

a. Sphenomandibular ligament

b. Temporomandibular joint ligament

c. Articular disc

d. Stylomandibular ligament

B. The temporomandibular joint ligament is located laterally on each joint and prevents posterior and inferior displacement of the mandible

The posterior superior alveolar artery supplies blood to

a. The mandibular teeth and floor of the mouth

b. The hard and soft palate

c. Maxillary posterior teeth and periodontium, and maxillary sinus

d. Maxillary anterior teeth and periodontium

C. The posterior superior alveolar artery exits the infratemporal fossa and descends into the maxillary tuberosity; supplies blood to the maxillary posterior teeth and periodontium, and maxillary sinus

All of the following are branches of the facial artery EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a. Ascending palatine artery

b. Inferior labial artery

c. Submental artery

d. Lingual artery

D. The lingual artery is a branch of the external carotid artery that runs above the hyoid bone; supplies the floor of the mouth, the tongue, and the suprahyoid muscles

Which of the following veins is formed by the merger of the maxillary vein and the superficial temporal vein?

a. Facial vein

b. Internal jugular vein

c. Retromandibular vein

d. Brachiocephalic vein

C. The superficial temporal vein and the maxillary vein form the retromandibular vein

The pterygoid plexus of veins is of clinical importance for all of the following reasons EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a. Connections with the cavernous sinus could cause an infection of dental origin to spread to the cranial cavity

b. Connections of the plexus drain into the superior vena cava, directly to the heart

c. Connections with the facial vein could allow an infection on the surface of the face to reach the plexus and spread to more internal structures

d. Trauma to the plexus such as puncture during the administration of local anesthesia could result in a hematoma

B. The external and internal jugular veins on both sides of the neck merge with the subclavian veins to form the brachiocephalic veins, which then drain into the superior vena cava directly to the heart

During an extraoral examination of a patient, the dental hygienist notes lymphadenopathy beneath the chin near the midline. Which one of the following lymph nodes is involved?

a. Retroauricular nodes

b. Inferior deep cervical nodes

c. Submandibular nodes

d. Submental nodes

22. D. The submental nodes are superficial cervical lymph nodes located beneath the chin near the midline; drain the chin, lower lip, floor of the mouth, mandibular incisors, and apex of the tongue; lymphadenopathy could indicate infection or disease

All of the following are endocrine glands EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a. Parotid gland

b. Thyroid gland

c. Parathyroid gland

d. Thymus gland

A. The parotid salivary gland is a paired major salivary exocrine gland of the head

The parotid salivary glands empty through the

a. Sublingual fold

b. Stensen duct

c. Wharton duct

d. Sublingual caruncle

B. The parotid salivary glands empty through the Stensen duct which pierces the buccinator muscle and opens opposite the second maxillary molar; the parotid papilla marks the opening of the duct

An exocrine gland is a gland having a duct associated with it that allows secretions to be emptied directly into the location where the secretion is to be used. An endocrine gland is a ductless gland, with secretion being poured directly into the blood.

a. Both statements are TRUE

b. Both statements are FALSE

c. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE

d. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE

A. Both statements are TRUE

The minor salivary gland associated the circumvallate lingual papillae are:

a. Parotid salivary glands

b. Submandibular salivary glands

c. Sublingual salivary glands

d. Ebner's salivary glands

D. Ebner's glands are minor salivary glands associated with the large circumvallate lingual papillae, on the posterior portion of the tongue's dorsal surface

A sensory nerve that carries information from the body to the brain or spinal cord is called:

a. Efferent nerve

b. Nerve

c. Afferent nerve

d. Neuron

C. An afferent nerve is a sensory nerve that carries information from the body to the brain

Which one of the following cranial nerves is the largest?

a. Fifth cranial nerve

b. Ninth cranial nerve

c. Eighth cranial nerve

d. Twelfth cranial nerve

A. The fifth cranial nerve, trigeminal nerve (CN V), is the largest cranial nerve; efferent component for the muscles of mastication; afferent component for the teeth, tongue, oral cavity, and most of the skin of the face and head

All of the following cranial nerves supply innervation for eye movement EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a. Cranial Nerve I

b. Cranial Nerve III

c. Cranial Nerve IV

d. Cranial Nerve VI

A. Cranial Nerve I, olfactory nerve, is an afferent nerve that carries smell from the nasal mucosa to the brain

The three divisions or branches of the trigeminal nerve are:

a. Frontal nerve, lacrimal nerve, nasociliary nerve

b. Zygomatic nerve, infraorbital nerve, inferior alveolar nerve

c. Ophthalmic nerve, maxillary nerve, mandibular nerve

d. Long buccal nerve, auriculotemporal nerve, lingual nerve

C. The three divisions or branches of the trigeminal nerve are the ophthalmic, maxillary and mandibular nerve

The muscles of mastication are supplied by the trigeminal nerve. The muscles of facial expression are supplied by the facial nerve.

a. Both statements are TRUE

b. Both statements are FALSE

c. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE

d. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE

A. Both statements are true

All of the following cranial nerves serve only head and neck structures EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a. Vagus nerve

b. Glossopharyngeal nerve

c. Vestibulocochlear nerve

d. Accessory nerve

A. The vagus nerve, cranial nerve X, supplies efferent components to the muscles of the soft palate, pharynx, and larynx, and parasympathetic fibers to the organs in the thoracic and abdominal cavities

The infraorbital nerve innervates which of the following?

a. Lacrimal gland and adjacent skin, and conjunctiva

b. Skin of the lower eyelid, medial portion of the cheek, side of the nose, upper lip

c. Skin of the cheek and the temple

d. Skin of the upper eyelid, forehead, scalp, and frontal sinus

B. The infraorbital nerve innervates the skin of the lower eyelid, medial portion of the cheek, side of the nose, and upper lip

Which one of the following nerves innervates the parotid salivary gland?

a. Vagus nerve CN X

b. Facial nerve CN VII

c. Hypoglossal nerve CN XII

d. Glossopharyngeal nerve CN IX

D. The parotid salivary gland is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve, CN IX

The sensation of taste on the anterior one-third of the tongue is supplied by the

a. Facial nerve

b. Glossopharyngeal nerve

c. Hypoglossal nerve

d. Accessory nerve

A. The facial nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression, taste to the anterior one-third of the tongue, and submandibular and sublingual glands

The only division of the trigeminal nerve that contains both afferent and efferent components

a. Ophthalmic nerve

b. Mandibular nerve

c. Maxillary nerve

d. Facial nerve

B. The mandibular nerve (V3), third division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) is the only division that has afferent and efferent components

Bisphosphonates disturb the process of bone resorption and remodeling. Which of the following cells is responsible for the majority of bone resorption in the remodeling process?

a. Osteocyte

b. Osteoblast

c. Osteoclast

d. Monocyte

C. Osteoclasts are bone resorbing cells that break down bone by freeing calcium to initiate bone remodeling

While performing the extraoral examination, the dental hygienist noted lymphadenopathy along the neck approximately 2 inches below the ear. Given the location, which of the following lymph nodes are involved?

a. Inferior deep cervical nodes

b. Anterior auricular nodes

c. Occipital nodes

d. Superior deep cervical nodes

D. The superior deep cervical nodes are located deep beneath the sternocleidomastoid muscle, 2 inches (5 cm) below the ear and are the primary nodes for drainage of the posterior nasal cavity, posterior hard palate, base of tongue, and maxillary third molars; the jugulodigastric lymph node in this area is easily palpable in patients with tonsillar lymphadenopathy

In order to examine the temporomandibular joint (TMJ), the dental hygienist asks the patient to open and close her mouth slowly. All of the following muscles of mastication are responsible for elevation of the mandible EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a. Lateral pterygoid

b. Temporalis

c. Medial pterygoid

d. Masseter

A. The lateral pterygoid muscle originates from two heads; both heads work together to protrude the mandible which occurs during opening; it is the only muscle of mastication that depresses the mandible

The dental hygienist should explain to the patient that crepitus of the TMJ can occur when the articular disc becomes displaced which affects the normal movement of the TMJ. Which of the following describes the movement of the TMJ?

a. Hinge movement followed by gliding movement

b. Hinge movement only

c. Gliding movement only

d. Gliding movement followed by hinge movement

A. Orientation of the mandibular condyle in the fossa prevents complete opening (depression); first is a rotational or hinge movement of the condyles in the lower synovial cavities to partially open the mandible, followed by a gliding movement in the upper synovial cavities which allows the mandible to open fully

Which one of the following cranial nerves is responsible for the patient's loss of taste on the back of the tongue?

a. Trigeminal nerve

b. Glossopharyngeal nerve

c. Vestibulocochlear nerve

d. Hypoglossal nerve

B. The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) is an afferent and efferent nerve; the afferent innervation provides taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue, general sensation to the posterior one-third of the tongue, pharynx, tonsillar regions and carotid sinus

The dental hygienist plans to perform scaling and root planing on the maxillary right quadrant. In order to achieve anesthesia of the maxillary first molar, the hygienist may need to target which of the following two nerves?

a. Middle superior alveolar nerve and posterior superior alveolar nerve

b. Posterior superior alveolar nerve and anterior superior alveolar nerve

c. Middle superior alveolar nerve and anterior superior alveolar nerve

d. Infraorbital nerve and posterior superior alveolar nerve

A. The middle superior alveolar (MSA) nerve carries sensations from the dental branches in the pulp tissue of the maxillary premolar teeth and mesial buccal root of the maxillary first molar, the associated periodontium, and buccal gingiva; the posterior superior alveolar (PSA) nerve carries sensations from the dental branches in the pulp tissue of the maxillary molars (except mesial buccal root of the maxillary first molar), periodontium, buccal gingiva, and the maxillary sinus

After administering local anesthesia to the maxillary right quadrant, the dental hygienist notices that the patient is experiencing sensitivity of the lingual tissues. In order to keep the patient comfortable, the hygienist should also anesthetize which one of the following nerves?

a. Middle superior alveolar nerve

b. Lesser palatine nerve

c. Greater palatine nerve

d. Lingual nerve

C. The greater palatine (GP) nerve carries sensations from the hard palate and posterior lingual gingiva

Due to the patient's seasonal allergies, which one of the following sinuses could become infected and cause discomfort and complications with the maxillary posterior teeth?

a. Maxillary

b. Ethmoid

c. Sphenoid

d. Frontal

A. The maxillary sinuses are the largest, pyramid shaped, and drain into the middle nasal meatus; diseases of these sinuses can cause complications of the maxillary posterior teeth