Pharmacy Tech Final Exam Flashcards

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These flashcards are designed to help pharmacy technician students prepare for their final exam. The cards consist of questions and answers.

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172 Terms

1
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Drug diversion is best defined as:

D- The intentional misuse of a drug intended for medical purposes and recreational use of a prescription or a scheduled drug.

2
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What does DUE stand for?

D- Drug Utilization Evaluation

3
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Which agency ensures the safety, efficacy, and security of drugs, biologics, medical devices, food, cosmetics, and radioactive products?

B- FDA (Food and Drug Administration)

4
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Medicare insures individuals who are:

D- Over 65 years of age, under 65 with long-term disabilities, or with end-stage renal disease.

5
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What entity oversees workplace safety?

B-Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

6
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What does PHI stand for?

Protected Health Information

7
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Under whose authority is the FDA currently?

C-Department of Health and Human Services

8
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Which of the following required the labeling “Caution: Federal Law prohibits dispensing without a prescription”?

A-1951 durham-humphrey amendment

9
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Which of the following involved the setup of the five-label schedule of controlled schedules

C-1970 Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act

10
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Which of the following are exceptions to the childproof cap requirement set into place by the Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970?

D- all options are correct

11
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What does the first set of numbers in an NDC number represent?

A-Labeler Code

12
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Which sets of numbers in the NDC code are assigned by the drug company?

D-The second (product code) and third (package code) sets

13
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OBRA-87 originally addressed problems regarding the quality of health care for

B- Older Adults

14
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OBRA 90 specifically states that the pharmacists must offer to counsel all

D- medicaid patients who receive new prescriptions

15
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DUEs required under OBRA 90 must include all of the following except

C- evaluation of lower cost therapies

16
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Which of the following statements is (are) true of patient counseling

D- all options are correct

17
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Which of the following is NOT considered a HIPAA-covered entity?

B- Family Member

18
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To whom can drug errors be reported?

A-MedWatch

19
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Which of the following product recalls is the most serious

Class 1

20
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Which schedule of medication is considered an exempt controlled substance?

C-V

21
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Which of the following is (are) true of Schedule C-I drug

D- all options are correct

22
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Individual states cannot establish which of the following

D-Schedule under which a drug should be placed

23
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Who can sign DEA Form 222 to order schedule C-II narcotics?

A- Pharmacist who signed DEA Form 224 or the person who has been the legally designated Power of Attorney by that pharmacist

24
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DEA Form 222 consists of three copies. Which copy is ultimately sent to the DEA?

B- Middle copy (2)

25
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How many years does the pharmacy need to retain invoices for scheduled drug purchases?

B- 2 years

26
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Which DEA form is needed to destroy damaged, outdated, or unwanted controlled substances?

A- DEA Form 41

27
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Schedule C-II prescriptions cannot be

D- Refilled and transferred

28
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How often does the DEA require a narcotic inventory?

Every 2 years

29
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Which of the following statements is (are) true of record keeping as it/they applies to controlled substances?

D- all options are correct

30
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In which of the following methods can prescriptions for schedules C-II through C-V drugs be accepted by the pharmacy?

D- all options are correct

31
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What is the maximum number of refills allowed for schedules C-III and C-IV prescriptions?

C-Five refills within 6 months of the date the prescription was written

32
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How many times can schedules C-III, C-IV, and C-V prescriptions be transferred?

B-One

33
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Which of the following statements is not true regarding a boxed warning?

C-A boxed warning is required on all medication package inserts.

34
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Which of the following is not required on a prescription label?

C-License or DEA number of the prescriber

35
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What is the first letter in the DEA number of prescribers who are qualified to prescribe medication to treat opioid addiction?

C-X

36
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Which of the following would be a correct DEA number for Dylan Brow, MD?

C

37
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What does the abbreviation REMS mean?

Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy

38
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What medication does NOT have special prescribing requirements?

C-Heroin

39
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What are the purchase limits of pseudoephedrine?

D- all options are correct

40
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Which drug classifications require package inserts to be provided with the prescription?

D- all options are correct

41
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What government agency created Safety Data Sheet requirements?

D-OSHA

42
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Which of the following was NOT covered in OBRA '87?

A-Individual Privacy Rights

43
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Which medication is covered under the I-Pledge program?

C-Isotretinoin

44
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A medication is packaged in a container that is defective; what type of drug recall would it be?

C- Class 3

45
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When a state law conflicts with a federal law, which law must be followed?

C-The most stringent law

46
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Which act defined adulteration and misbranding?

B-Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act of 1938

47
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By what means is a patient’s information protected in an information system?

B- Use encryption technology

48
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Which of the following is considered a patient’s right under HIPAA?

D- all options are correct

49
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Which DEA form must a pharmacy possess in order to dispense controlled substances?

D- DEA Form 224

50
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Which of the following is considered to be a universal language in medicine?

B- Latin

51
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The “Do Not Use List” provided by The Joint Commission (TJC) outline?

C-Commonly misinterpreted medical abbreviations

52
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What factors influence manufacturers’ choices of dosage forms?

D- all options are correct

53
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The three major broad categories of dosage forms are?

B-Solids, semisolids, and liquids.

54
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Creams, lotions, ointments, powders, gelatins, suppositories, and inhalant powders are considered?

B-Semisolids

55
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What needs to be done to substitute one dosage form for another on a prescription?

D-The pharmacist must call and get permission from the prescriber.

56
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Some tablets enteric coated to

C-Avoid the release of the medication in the stomach, which could be irritating.

57
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A dosage that can be safely split in half is a(n)?

D-Scored tablet

58
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Caplet refers to a(n)

D-Different-shaped and easy-to-swallow form of tablet.

59
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Which of the following is not a type of capsule?

C-Caplet

60
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Which of the following abbreviations does NOT refer to releasing medication over an extended period?

A-IR

61
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Which of the following is theabbreviation for ointment?

C- Ung

62
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What is the recommended abbreviation for subcutaneous administration?

D-subcut

63
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SSRI means

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

64
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Dosage forms appropriate for children include?

D- all options are correct

65
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In which of the following doage forms are medications often aimed at a local action in the mouth or throat?

C- Lozenges and troches

66
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Transdermal medication patches..

D-Are easily administered and should be folded in half with the sticky parts together before disposing.

67
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Which of the following liquids always contain alcohol?

C- Elixir

68
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Syrups contain water and with dissolved medications.

B- Sugar

69
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MDI stands for?

D-Metered dose inhaler

70
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HFA?

D- all options are correct

71
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What can be added to a mixture of water and oil to bind them together in a medication base?

C-Emulsifier

72
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All of the following are true statements EXCEPT?

A-Suspensions are a good choice for children and some seniors.

73
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An example of an evacuation enema?

C-Fleet Saline Enema for constipation

74
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__ are a topical preparation that is designed to absorb secretions.

D-Pastes

75
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Rectal suppositories act _ when they are used for nausea and vomiting.

B-Systemically

76
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Powders have the advantage(s) of?

D- all options are correct

77
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PO is the abbreviation for?

By mouth

78
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What is an advantage of the IV route of administration?

A-Fast onset of action

79
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What should the pharmacy technician do if he or she get a prescription for cortisporin otic solution with directions to instill 1 drop in the left eye two times daily (bid) for 5 days?

C-Alert the pharmacist since otic medications are never used in the eyes.

80
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Which is the most professional way to word the label directions for one drop in the left eye?

C- Instill one drop in the left eye.

81
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What is the meaning of ADME?

A-Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination

82
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Which term refers to the location of a medication throughout blood, organs, and tissues?

B-Distribution

83
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The process by which the body breaks down or converts medications to active or inactive substances is called?

C-Metabolism

84
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The primary site of drug metabolism in the human body is?

B-Liver

85
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Half-life refers to the time it takes for the?

D- body to break down and excrete one half of the medication, and the plasma concentration of the medication to decrease by 50%

86
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Which of the following are ways a drug may be eliminated from the body?

D- all options are correct

87
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Which of the following routes of administration have 100% bioavailability?

B-IV

88
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All of the following are excipients EXCEPT?

D-Active ingredients

89
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Interpreting medical terms involves learning the meanings of?

D- all options are correct

90
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Which of the following is used to adjust the pH of the compound?

B-Buffer

91
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Which dosage form usually has medications in a base that is part oil and part water and is intended for topical or local use?

A-Cream

92
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A(n) __ is a mixture of two or more immiscible liquids; one liquid is dispersed throughout the other.

B-Emulsion

93
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What type of vial keeps the medication separate from the diluent until it is time to reconstitute?

A-ADD-Vantage

94
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Which term refers to the proportion of the drug that is delivered to its destination and is available to the site of action for which it was intended?

A- Bioavailability

95
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Pharmacies that compound medications must comply with?

C-USP monographs

96
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Ondansetron is available as an __ dosage form.

A-ODT

97
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__ contain medication in a glycol or oil base, such as petrolatum.

C-Ointment

98
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Which dosage form is inserted into a body cavity or under the skin?

C-Implant

99
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The United States Pharmacopoeia–National Formulary (USP-NF) provides access to the official standards of the?

C-U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

100
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What can a pharmacy technician tell about the medication atenolol (Tenormin) from the way the name is written?

D-Tenormin is the brand or trade name; atenolol is the generic name.