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These flashcards are designed to help pharmacy technician students prepare for their final exam. The cards consist of questions and answers.
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Drug diversion is best defined as:
D- The intentional misuse of a drug intended for medical purposes and recreational use of a prescription or a scheduled drug.
What does DUE stand for?
D- Drug Utilization Evaluation
Which agency ensures the safety, efficacy, and security of drugs, biologics, medical devices, food, cosmetics, and radioactive products?
B- FDA (Food and Drug Administration)
Medicare insures individuals who are:
D- Over 65 years of age, under 65 with long-term disabilities, or with end-stage renal disease.
What entity oversees workplace safety?
B-Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
What does PHI stand for?
Protected Health Information
Under whose authority is the FDA currently?
C-Department of Health and Human Services
Which of the following required the labeling “Caution: Federal Law prohibits dispensing without a prescription”?
A-1951 durham-humphrey amendment
Which of the following involved the setup of the five-label schedule of controlled schedules
C-1970 Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act
Which of the following are exceptions to the childproof cap requirement set into place by the Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970?
D- all options are correct
What does the first set of numbers in an NDC number represent?
A-Labeler Code
Which sets of numbers in the NDC code are assigned by the drug company?
D-The second (product code) and third (package code) sets
OBRA-87 originally addressed problems regarding the quality of health care for
B- Older Adults
OBRA 90 specifically states that the pharmacists must offer to counsel all
D- medicaid patients who receive new prescriptions
DUEs required under OBRA 90 must include all of the following except
C- evaluation of lower cost therapies
Which of the following statements is (are) true of patient counseling
D- all options are correct
Which of the following is NOT considered a HIPAA-covered entity?
B- Family Member
To whom can drug errors be reported?
A-MedWatch
Which of the following product recalls is the most serious
Class 1
Which schedule of medication is considered an exempt controlled substance?
C-V
Which of the following is (are) true of Schedule C-I drug
D- all options are correct
Individual states cannot establish which of the following
D-Schedule under which a drug should be placed
Who can sign DEA Form 222 to order schedule C-II narcotics?
A- Pharmacist who signed DEA Form 224 or the person who has been the legally designated Power of Attorney by that pharmacist
DEA Form 222 consists of three copies. Which copy is ultimately sent to the DEA?
B- Middle copy (2)
How many years does the pharmacy need to retain invoices for scheduled drug purchases?
B- 2 years
Which DEA form is needed to destroy damaged, outdated, or unwanted controlled substances?
A- DEA Form 41
Schedule C-II prescriptions cannot be
D- Refilled and transferred
How often does the DEA require a narcotic inventory?
Every 2 years
Which of the following statements is (are) true of record keeping as it/they applies to controlled substances?
D- all options are correct
In which of the following methods can prescriptions for schedules C-II through C-V drugs be accepted by the pharmacy?
D- all options are correct
What is the maximum number of refills allowed for schedules C-III and C-IV prescriptions?
C-Five refills within 6 months of the date the prescription was written
How many times can schedules C-III, C-IV, and C-V prescriptions be transferred?
B-One
Which of the following statements is not true regarding a boxed warning?
C-A boxed warning is required on all medication package inserts.
Which of the following is not required on a prescription label?
C-License or DEA number of the prescriber
What is the first letter in the DEA number of prescribers who are qualified to prescribe medication to treat opioid addiction?
C-X
Which of the following would be a correct DEA number for Dylan Brow, MD?
C
What does the abbreviation REMS mean?
Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy
What medication does NOT have special prescribing requirements?
C-Heroin
What are the purchase limits of pseudoephedrine?
D- all options are correct
Which drug classifications require package inserts to be provided with the prescription?
D- all options are correct
What government agency created Safety Data Sheet requirements?
D-OSHA
Which of the following was NOT covered in OBRA '87?
A-Individual Privacy Rights
Which medication is covered under the I-Pledge program?
C-Isotretinoin
A medication is packaged in a container that is defective; what type of drug recall would it be?
C- Class 3
When a state law conflicts with a federal law, which law must be followed?
C-The most stringent law
Which act defined adulteration and misbranding?
B-Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act of 1938
By what means is a patient’s information protected in an information system?
B- Use encryption technology
Which of the following is considered a patient’s right under HIPAA?
D- all options are correct
Which DEA form must a pharmacy possess in order to dispense controlled substances?
D- DEA Form 224
Which of the following is considered to be a universal language in medicine?
B- Latin
The “Do Not Use List” provided by The Joint Commission (TJC) outline?
C-Commonly misinterpreted medical abbreviations
What factors influence manufacturers’ choices of dosage forms?
D- all options are correct
The three major broad categories of dosage forms are?
B-Solids, semisolids, and liquids.
Creams, lotions, ointments, powders, gelatins, suppositories, and inhalant powders are considered?
B-Semisolids
What needs to be done to substitute one dosage form for another on a prescription?
D-The pharmacist must call and get permission from the prescriber.
Some tablets enteric coated to
C-Avoid the release of the medication in the stomach, which could be irritating.
A dosage that can be safely split in half is a(n)?
D-Scored tablet
Caplet refers to a(n)
D-Different-shaped and easy-to-swallow form of tablet.
Which of the following is not a type of capsule?
C-Caplet
Which of the following abbreviations does NOT refer to releasing medication over an extended period?
A-IR
Which of the following is theabbreviation for ointment?
C- Ung
What is the recommended abbreviation for subcutaneous administration?
D-subcut
SSRI means
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
Dosage forms appropriate for children include?
D- all options are correct
In which of the following doage forms are medications often aimed at a local action in the mouth or throat?
C- Lozenges and troches
Transdermal medication patches..
D-Are easily administered and should be folded in half with the sticky parts together before disposing.
Which of the following liquids always contain alcohol?
C- Elixir
Syrups contain water and with dissolved medications.
B- Sugar
MDI stands for?
D-Metered dose inhaler
HFA?
D- all options are correct
What can be added to a mixture of water and oil to bind them together in a medication base?
C-Emulsifier
All of the following are true statements EXCEPT?
A-Suspensions are a good choice for children and some seniors.
An example of an evacuation enema?
C-Fleet Saline Enema for constipation
__ are a topical preparation that is designed to absorb secretions.
D-Pastes
Rectal suppositories act _ when they are used for nausea and vomiting.
B-Systemically
Powders have the advantage(s) of?
D- all options are correct
PO is the abbreviation for?
By mouth
What is an advantage of the IV route of administration?
A-Fast onset of action
What should the pharmacy technician do if he or she get a prescription for cortisporin otic solution with directions to instill 1 drop in the left eye two times daily (bid) for 5 days?
C-Alert the pharmacist since otic medications are never used in the eyes.
Which is the most professional way to word the label directions for one drop in the left eye?
C- Instill one drop in the left eye.
What is the meaning of ADME?
A-Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination
Which term refers to the location of a medication throughout blood, organs, and tissues?
B-Distribution
The process by which the body breaks down or converts medications to active or inactive substances is called?
C-Metabolism
The primary site of drug metabolism in the human body is?
B-Liver
Half-life refers to the time it takes for the?
D- body to break down and excrete one half of the medication, and the plasma concentration of the medication to decrease by 50%
Which of the following are ways a drug may be eliminated from the body?
D- all options are correct
Which of the following routes of administration have 100% bioavailability?
B-IV
All of the following are excipients EXCEPT?
D-Active ingredients
Interpreting medical terms involves learning the meanings of?
D- all options are correct
Which of the following is used to adjust the pH of the compound?
B-Buffer
Which dosage form usually has medications in a base that is part oil and part water and is intended for topical or local use?
A-Cream
A(n) __ is a mixture of two or more immiscible liquids; one liquid is dispersed throughout the other.
B-Emulsion
What type of vial keeps the medication separate from the diluent until it is time to reconstitute?
A-ADD-Vantage
Which term refers to the proportion of the drug that is delivered to its destination and is available to the site of action for which it was intended?
A- Bioavailability
Pharmacies that compound medications must comply with?
C-USP monographs
Ondansetron is available as an __ dosage form.
A-ODT
__ contain medication in a glycol or oil base, such as petrolatum.
C-Ointment
Which dosage form is inserted into a body cavity or under the skin?
C-Implant
The United States Pharmacopoeia–National Formulary (USP-NF) provides access to the official standards of the?
C-U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
What can a pharmacy technician tell about the medication atenolol (Tenormin) from the way the name is written?
D-Tenormin is the brand or trade name; atenolol is the generic name.