Week 1 (MC)

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384 Terms

1
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What are the gait varieties of horses, dogs, and cattle?

Horses- walk, trot, canter, gallop

Dogs- walk, trot, pace, canter gallop

Cattle- walk, trot, canter (rare gallop)

2
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What do you look a when assessing conformation of an animal?

Head + neck

Shoulders

Back + spine

Limbs + joints

Pelvis + hindquarters

3
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What is a conformational deformity where the limb deviates towards the midline (medially) distal to the affected joint?

Varus

4
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What is a conformational deformity where the limb deviates away from the midline (laterally) distal to the affected joint?

Valgus

5
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What is a conformational deformity where the legs and feet turn inwards?

Toed-in/pigeon-toed

6
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What is a conformational defect where the legs and feet turn outwards?

Toed-out

7
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What is a flexural deformity where the limb joints are abnormally flexed?

Flexure contracture

8
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What is a flexural deformity where the limb joints are abnormally extended?

Tendon laxity

9
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What is the point of stride where the toe leaves the ground?

Break-over

10
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What are the beats of each of these gaits?

Walk

Amble

Pace

Trot

Canter

Gallop

4

4

2

2

3

4

11
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What aspect of the horse’s anatomy allows for energy efficient high-speed movement?

Lightweight distal limbs

12
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What does a broken forward hoof pattern axis cause in horses?

High heel and short toe (lengthening first half of stride and shortening last half)

13
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What does broken-back hoof pattern axis cause in horses?

Short heel (long toe) (short first half of stride and long last half)

14
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How do you expect a horse with a toe-in conformation to move? Toed-out?

Padding

Winging

15
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How long does disuse atrophy take?

Chronic condition

16
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In which animals do you preform palpation first on limbs? Which dynamic gait evaluation first?

Horse

Dog

17
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What is a head nod indicative of in the trot when observed in a dynamic gait exam?

The foot that is down is good on the nod (but the other is damaged, down on sound)

18
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In which lameness grade is lameness difficult to observe and not consistent

Grade 1

19
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In which lameness grade is lameness difficult to observe at a walk or trot in straight line but can be seen in other circumstances (weight carrying, inclines)

Grade 2

20
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In which lameness grade is lameness consistently observed at a trot under all circumstances

Grade 3

21
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In which lameness grade is lameness obvious at a walk

Grade 4

22
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In which lameness grade does lameness produce minimal weight bearing in motion and or at rest or a complete inability to move

Grade 5

23
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What are some examples of mechanical lameness?

Stringhalt, shivers (glucose storage), fibrotic myopathy, upward fixation of the patella

24
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What can be seen in neurological lameness?

Ataxia and changes with behavior

25
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What is the difference between negative and positive localization in horses and dogs

Horse- (neg) lameness is alleviated by eliminating pain

Dog- (pos) pain is exacerbated by manipulation

26
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How can we narrow down the location of pain in horses?

Diagnostic analgesia

27
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What imaging modalities are useful for diagnosing orthopedic issues?

X-ray, ultrasound, nuclear scintigraphy, computer tomography, magnetic resonance imaging, arthroscopy/tenoscopy

28
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Which type of bone development occurs during embryology and the length of long bones (interstitial) before plates fuse?

Endochondral ossification

29
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Which form of bone development occurs in flat bones or long bone width?

Intramembranous ossification

30
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Small, elongated cells contained within small cavities in bone called lacunae

Osteocytes

31
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Mesenchymal cells that contribute to bone production and can be seen lining bone surfaces.

Osteoblasts

32
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Hematopoietic derived, multinucleated cells that resorb bone.

Osteoclasts

33
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The thin membrane of connective tissue lining the inner surface of bones.

Endosteum

34
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The membrane of connective tissue covering the outer surface of all ones except for at the articular surfaces of long bones.

Periosteum

35
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The process of bone formation in which a cartilage model becomes almost entirely replaced by bone preceding the formation of the actual bone.

Endochondral ossification

36
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The process of bone formation in which bone is directly laid in apposition on top of the bone that has just formed.

Intramembranous ossification

37
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Dense bone that forms the cortical region of bone.

Compact bone

38
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Bone that forms multi-directional, anastomosing struts within the marrow cavity

Spongy/trabecular bone

39
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The expanded end of a long bone.

40
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Protuberances on bones, which are usually for the attachment of muscles

Tuberosity/trochanter/tubercle

41
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Bony structures through or over which tendons pass; usually grooves in the bone and allow tendons to act as pulleys

Trochlea

42
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A rounded projection on a bone, usually for articulation with another bone

Condyle

43
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A projection of bone on the lateral edge above its condyle

Epicondyle

44
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An opening or passage into or through a bone (e.g., to allow the passage of blood vessels and nerves)

Foramen

45
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Hollow or depressed area in a bone

Fossa

46
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A rounded surface of articulation, crucial for joint movement and articulation

Head

47
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The narrower or constricted region connecting the head to the shaft/ diaphysis of the bone

Neck

48
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Long, tubelike mid portion of a long bone

Shaft/diaphysis

49
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Connects muscle to bone

Tendon

50
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Connects bone to bone

Ligament

51
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Which skeleton runs from the skull to the tip of the tail and includes the skull, mandible, vertebrae, ribs and sternum?

Axial

52
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Which skeleton consists of the pectoral and pelvic limbs and the shoulder and pelvic girdles that attach them to the body?

Appendicular

53
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Which skeleton is represented by the os penis in dogs and cats

Splanchnic

54
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How does the skeletal system participate in hemopoiesis

Tissue within bone marrow manufactures blood cells

55
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Which types of bone contain a medullary cavity?

Long bones

56
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What is the role of sesamoid bones in the bone

Within tendon running over bony prominence to change the angle at which the tendon passes over bone (to reduce wear and tear)

57
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Which bones are pneumatic bones

Maxillary and frontal

58
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What is a large round articulated surface of bones

Condyle

59
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What is the flat articulated surface of bones called

Facet

60
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What are the joints between skull bones called

Sutures

61
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What connects the mandible to the rest of the skull

Synovial joint

62
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Which bones suspend the larynx and tongue from the skull

Hyoid apparatus

63
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What are the numbers of ribs in the dog (true, false, floating)

True- 9 (attach directly to sternum)

False- 3 (fuse to form costal arch)

Floating- 1 (no ventral attachment)

64
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How many segments are there of the sternum in bovine + equine, dogs + cats, pigs + rabbits

Bovine + equine- 7

Dogs + cats- 8

Pigs + rabbits- 6

65
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What is the most cranial sternebra (segment) of the sternum called? Most caudal?

Cranial- manubrium

Caudal- xiphoid

66
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How does the scapula attach to the trunk?

By arrangement (synscarosis) of muscles with no conventional articulation

67
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What does the spine divide the lateral surface of the scapula into

Supraspinous and infraspinous fossae

68
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Which part of the scapula articulates with the humerus

Glenoid cavity

69
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What does the spine of the scapula end in (except in horses and pigs)

A Romano

70
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What is the additional projection of the acromion process called in cats

Suprahamate process

71
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What attaches to the medial aspect of the scapula?

Subscapularis m (subscapular fossa) and Serratus ventral is

72
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What does the spherical head of the humerus articulate with of the scapula

Glenoid cavity

73
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Which tubercles are on the front and side of the articular area, separated by the intertubercular groove through which the biceps brachii tendon passes of the humerus

Greater and lesser

74
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Which tubercle forms the basis of the point of the shoulder in the humerus

Lateral

75
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Which tubercles give attachments to muscles which support the shoulder joint, substituting for collateral ligaments in the humerus

Medial and lateral

76
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Which groove is found on the shaft/diaphysis of the humerus which spirals over its lateral aspect carrying brachialis muscle and radial nerve

Brachial groove

77
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What is the difference in articulation condyle of the distal extremity of the humerus in large animal vs dogs and cats

Large- trochlear (engaged with radius)

Small- divided into trochlea (for ulna) and capitulation (for radius)

78
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Which fossa of the humerus is formed by the caudal part of the groove of the trochlea and receives the anconeal process of the ulna

Olecranon fossa

79
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Which species is the radius stronger in?

Ungulates (less dominant in carnivores)

80
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What is the function of the widened proximal extremity of the radius

Supinating capacity for articulation with distal end humerus

81
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What is the name of the wrist bone? How many rows of bones does it consist of?

Carpus

2

82
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Which bones extend dismally from the distal carpal bones to the proximal phalanges

Metacarpal bones

83
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How many phalanges does 1 digit consist of

3 (digit 1 dewclaw exception)

84
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Which animals have fused ulna and radius

Ungulates

85
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What are the metacarpals of the horse called

2 small ones (splint bones)

1 large one (cannon bone)

86
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How are the phalanges of horses named

Long pastern (proximal)

Short pastern (middle)

Coffin bone (distal)

87
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How many digits are on each limb in bovine

4 (2 supporting weight and 2 vestigial)

88
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What are the pairs of hip bones called which join at the pelvic symphysis and the sacrum

Os coaxed

89
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What are the 4 fused bones that each hip bone consists of in dogs and cats

Ilium, ischium, pubis, acetabular

90
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What is a cup-shaped cavity on the lateral aspect of the os coxae that articulates with the head of the femur forming the coxofemoral joint

Acetabulum

91
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What results in incongruity and laxity of the coxofemoral joint

Abnormal formation of acetabulum and femoral head

92
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What does the proximal end of the femur form

Coxofemoral (hip) joint (which fits deeply into acetabulum of pelvis)

93
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What are the processes where the hip and thigh muscles attach on the femur called

Trochanters

94
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What is the large sesamoid bone formed in the distal tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle called

Patella

95
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What are the two small sesamoid bones in proximal gastrocnemius muscle tendons of dogs and cats called (not present in cattle or horses)

Fabellae

96
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What is the main weight-bearing bone of the lower limb that allows locomotion between stifle and tarsus called?

Tibia

97
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What joints does the tibia form?

Stifle (with femur) and hock (ankle with tarsal bones)

98
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What structure is parallel to the tibia which is non-weight bearing and serves as muscle attachment site

Fibula

99
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What is the vertebral formula of the dog?

C7 T13 L 7 S3 Cd20

100
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What is the vertebral formula of the horse?

C7 T18 L6 S5 Cd20