hematology final for real real (kenna)

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135 Terms

1
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which of the following refers to the variability of events that can occur to an unknown sample before analysis?

preanalytical

2
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the development order for red blood cells is which of the following

pronormoblast, basophilic normoblast, polychromatiphilic normoblast, orthochromic normoblast, reticulocyte, erythorocyte

3
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which of the following tests is used to monitor red cell production

reticulocyte count

4
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following the rule of three, which of these Hgb values would you suspect with a RBC value of 4?

12

5
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a technologist observing morphology on a differential slide noticed macrocytes and hypersegmented neutrophils. what type of anemia might these cells indicate

megaloblastic anemia

6
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pancytopenia means which of the following

Low WBC, RBC, Plt count

7
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hypersegmentation is defined as a segmented neutrophilic nucleus having

more than 5 lobes

8
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the primary purpose of white blood cells are to

defend against bacteria, fungi, viruses and various foreign substances

9
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the absolute differential count is

the total WBC x % of a cell type

10
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neutrophilic series maturation from least mature to most mature

Myeloblast, Promyelocyte, Myelocyte, Metamyelocyte, Band Neutrophil, segmented Neutrophil

11
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the primary functions of lymphocytes are recognizing what is foreign, forming antibodies and securing immunity

true

12
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the term left shift means

the bone marrow has failed to respond to the increased white count

13
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toxic granulation occurs most frequently in

neutrophils

14
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auer rods are most likely present in which of the following

acute myelocytic leukemia

15
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the first choice of treatment for polycythemia vera is?

therapeutic phlebotomy

16
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which of the following laboratory tests are used to measure the extrinsic pathway

PT

17
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which of the following laboratory tests are used to measure the intrinsic pathway

PTT

18
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which of the following short term anticoagulant drugs, administered by intravenous infusion, is monitored by the PTT value

Heparin

19
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a normal adult hemoglobin consists of how many heme molecules

four

20
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the hormone responsible for red blood cell production is

erythropoietin (EPO)

21
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the most essential pre-analytical step in ensuring the quality of laboratory results is

patient identification

22
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production, development, and maturation of all blood cells is called

hematopoiesis

23
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a patient with classic hemophilia A is deficient in

Factor VIII

24
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what is the anticoagulant of choice for coagulation testing

sodium citrate

25
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the most characteristic change seen in the peripheral smear of a patient with multiple myeloma is the prescence of

rouleaux

26
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The JAK2 chromosomal maturation is associated with

polycythemia vera

27
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according to current WHO classification criteria, acute leukemia is characterized by which of the following

hypercellular bone marrow with greater than 20% blasts

28
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is predominantly a disease of children

ALL

29
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an autosomal disorder than manifests itself with large lysosomal inclusions, recurring infections, and albinism is

Chédiak-Higashi syndrome

30
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the best corrective action for a patient who exhibits platelet satellitium on peripheral blood smear is to

redraw the sample in sodium citrate

31
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toxic vacuolization occurs most frequently in

neutrophils

32
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patients with hemophilia A or B have abnormal results in which coagulation assay

PTT

33
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which of the following is the most useful in differentiating hemophilia A from hemophilia B

factor assays

34
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infectious mononucleosis is caused by the EBV virus, which infects b lymphocytes

true

35
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all of the coagulation factors except a portion of factor VIII are produced in

liver

36
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a patient with classic hemophilia A is deficient in

factor VIII

37
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the blood to anticoagulation ratio for coagulation testing is

9:1

38
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which of the following is a normal platelet count

221,000

39
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the most common drug related platelet abnormality is due to

aspirin

40
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the disorder in which a particular clotting factor is decreased is referred to as

hemophilia

41
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the principal substrate of the coagulation and fibrinolytic system

fibrinogen

42
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which of the following short term anticoagulant drugs, administered by intravenous infusion, is monitored by the PTT value

heparin

43
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what is the expected PT result in a patient who is on coumadin (warfrin) and is stable?

~26 seconds

44
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obstetrical complications like retained placenta or abruption placenta are a leading cause of

DIC

45
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these two inhibitors that keep the activation of coagulation under control are

protein C & S

46
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the first response of a cut vessel is

vasoconstriction

47
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what is responsible for hemolytic uremic syndrome

e coli

48
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thrombocytosis is defined as a platelet count that is

> 450,000

49
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which of the following assays will be abnormal with hemophilia A

PTT

50
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christmas disease is another name for

hemophilia B

51
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d dimer analysis may have what kind of result in DIC?

increased

52
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factor Xa inhibitors are monititored using which assay

Anti-factor Xa assay

53
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common factor pathway

X, VIII, II, I

54
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intrinsic factor pathway

XII, XI, IX, VIII

55
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extrinsic factor pathway

VII, III

56
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what can be used to seperate the initial diagnosis between acute and chronic leukemia

cell maturity

57
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which statement best describes acute leukemia

a quick onset occuring at any age

58
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acute myeloid leukemia

seen in myeloid and monocytic cells

59
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patients with AML have

<20% blasts in the bone marrow

60
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which type of anemia is usually present in a patient with acute leukemia

Normocytic, normochromic

61
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all stages of neutrophils are most likely to be seen in the peripheral blood of a patient with

chronic granulocytic leukemia

62
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a patient with normal HgB and WBC value, a persistently elevated PLT count, increased marrow megakaryocytes, and frequent bleeding and clotting episodes most likely has

chronic myelocytic leukemia

63
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which of the following features distinguishes a monocyte from a lymphocyte

abundent grey-blue cytoplasm

64
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an inherited disorder showing hyposegmentation in the nucleus of a segmented neutrophil

pelger huet anomaly

65
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which disease results in an accumulation of plasma cells in the bone marrow

Multiple Myeloma

66
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which of the following is a tick borne illness

human ehrlichiosis

67
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“penia”

decreased

68
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“osis” or “philia”

increased

69
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in infectious mono, lymphocytes tend to be reactive and

enlarged with abundent royal blue cytoplasm

70
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some patients will react with EDTA, causing their PLTs to form a ring around neutrophils, this is called

platelet satellitism

71
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which organs are the primary site for lymphocytes?

bone marrow and spleen

72
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the primary functions of lymphocytes are recgonizing what is foreign, forming antibodies and securing immunity

true

73
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the primary function of t lymphocytes are to make antibodies to foreign antigens

false

74
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an exaggerated response to infections and inflammation is

leukmoid reaction

75
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in which of these circumstances do you usually see toxic granulation

severe infections

76
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reed sternberg cells are present in

hodgkins lymphoma

77
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a rare genetic disorder characterized by the prescence of coarse dark granules in neutrophils, lymphocytes, eosinophils and monocytes

alder reilly syndrome

78
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smudge cells?

CLL

79
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an abnormal protein that is an overproduction of IgM

known as Waldenström's macroglobulinemia.

80
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lymphocytes in CLL are

increased in number and nonfunctional

81
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what is the cytochemical stain used to diagnosis hair cell luekemia

Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) stain.

82
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bence jones protein is found in the urine of patients with

multiple myeloma

83
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preleukemia, dysmelopoietic syndrome, oligloblastic anemia, are all other names for what syndrome

myelodysplastic syndromes

84
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what is the cutoff blast count used to distinguish a patient with MDS as opposed to a patient with acute leukemia

20%

85
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how many classifications of myelodsplastic syndromes (MDS) are there according to the world health organization

four

86
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the characterisitc morphologic feature in multiple myeloma is

rouleaux formation

87
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toxic granulation and dohle bodies are seen in response to

infection

88
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the WBC counts in CLL are

exteremly elevated

89
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acute myeloid leukemia are

seen myeloid and monocytic cells

90
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which of the following is typically not classified in MDS

multiple myeloma

91
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intrinsic factor, secreted by the parietal cells of the stomach is necessary for

vitamin B12 absorption

92
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alpha thalassemia results from

not enough functional hemoglobin A produced

93
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beta thalassemia major results from

no HgB a being synthesized

94
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aplastic anemia is characterized by which of the following

pancytopenia and reticulocytopenia

95
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which test is used to confirm a sickle cell screening

Hemoglobin electrophoresis

96
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what red cell inclusions may be seen in the peripheral blood smear of a patient postsplenectomy

Howell-Jolly bodies

97
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hereditary pyropoikilocytosis is a red cell membrane defect characterized by

the presence of abnormal, fragmented red blood cells and thermal instability.

98
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iron deficiecny anemia is characterized by

decrease serum iron, decreased serum ferritin, increased total iron binding compacity

99
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the macrocytes typically seen in megaloblastic anemia are

oval shaped

100
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which of the following organs is responsible for the pitting process for RBCs

spleen