Marketing Exam 2

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233 Terms

1
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What are the two functions of a brand?

identify and differentiate

2
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What are the two parts that make up a brand?

Brand Name and Brand Mark

3
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Seeing a brand can cause consumers to automatically think of the attributes of the firm.

true

4
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A "brand" is confined to the physical name or logo associated with the firm.

false

5
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The primary value of a brand for consumers is the:

Reduction of perceived risk

6
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The brand resides in the consumer’s:

memory

7
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What is Spreading Activation?

When nodes are energized and brought into working memory

8
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When does activation occur?

With either external or internal cues

9
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Addi is driving from Stillwater to Dallas, and sees a McDonald’s sign with golden arches
(but no words). She automatically begins to think of her hunger. What kind of cue
activated this thought.

External cue

10
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Brand awareness is associated with the ability of the brand to ______ who is offering a
product or service, while brand association is associated with the ability of the brand to
______ from competitors.

Identify; differentiate

11
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Which of these is not a type of brand association?

Brand memories

12
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Automaticity in branding context means:

The evaluation of a brand is brought to either conscious or subconscious thought

13
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A way of visually presenting where your brand is in consumer’s minds is called a:

brand map

14
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Brand associations within a brand map can also have ____ attached to them

Mood and emotion

15
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A brand map determines brand associations from the perspective of the:

consumer

16
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When creating a brand map, a word cloud is always more useful than a table.

false

17
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The added value delivered by the brand over the functional benefits or book value is called:

Brand equity

18
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Book value of assets + Brand equity =

Market value of brand

19
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Brand equity starts as a _____ concept, but ends up having a real ____ effect

Psychological; monetary

20
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The “magic lesson” teaches us how to turn what into dollars?

What consumers know about the brand

21
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Which of these is not a way to turn brand equity into dollar value?

Price competition

22
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If Oreo cookies come out with a new flavor of s’mores Oreo cookies, what are they using
in order to turn brand equity into dollars?

Promotional Advantage

23
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The example of the purchase of the PanAm brand demonstrates how:

Brands can have value beyond the book value of the firm

24
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An agreement whereby a company permits another organization to use its brand on other
products for a fee is defined as:

Brand licensing

25
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The brand name must provide ______ meaning for the product.

Secondary

26
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Which of these is not a branding strategy?

Franchise Branding

27
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Unilever houses many brands, such as SlimFast nutrition drinks, Dove soap, and Skippy
peanut butter, that all sell different products. What branding strategy is used here?

Individual Branding

28
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Which of these is not a benefit of individual branding?

Strong connections to established brands for new brands to lean on

29
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Which of these is not a benefit of institutional branding?

Greater individualized identity for new products

30
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Which of these companies is more likely to use an institutional branding strategy for a
new product or service?

Sony

31
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Which of these is not a benefit of sub-branding?

Increased market share

32
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What is the main advantage of using a sub-branding strategy?

All Answers:
-Ability to take on the advantages of individual and institutional branding
-Ability to avoid the disadvantages of the individual and institutional branding
-General flexibility

33
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Mostly, business is made up of:

Smaller, more frequent transactions

34
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Face to Face communication is necessary for the true “frontline” transactions.

False

35
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Technology has had little impact on organizational frontlines in most industries

False

36
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Rachel goes to Walmart to buy groceries and checks out with a cashier. When Rachel
hands her cash to the Walmart employee what kind of interaction has taken place?

Traditional interactions

37
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When Mariah needs money, she goes to an ATM instead of driving to her bank. When
Mariah utilizes this ATM that represents her home bank, what kind og interaction has
taken place?

Human customer, machine service provider

38
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Which of these types of interactions is the only one where human interaction is absolutely
necessary?

Traditional Interactions

39
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The acronym LAURA helps us analyze and adjust when:

A product or service has disappointed the consumer

40
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What is the definition of retailing?

Selling goods and services to consumers for their own use

41
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What is the difference between retailing and wholesaling?

Retailers sell to individuals for end use; wholesalers sell to companies for resale/company use

42
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What is the difference between merchant and agent wholesalers?

Merchants take ownership to a product; agents act as intermediaries

43
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Why do retailers exist?

They add value by adjusting discrepancies between the needs of consumers and sellers

44
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Why is breaking bulk important?

Sellers want to produce in bulk, consumers want to buy in small amounts

45
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What is the reason for so many levels existing between the producer and end-user?

Each level adds some kind of value to the end user

46
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When it comes to compensation in a channel of distribution, ____ plays the most
important role

power

47
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Brands marketed as more luxury options (such as Lexus) are likely to utilize ____
distribution intensity.

selective

48
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Which of these is not a form of sharing economy?

P2B

49
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Air BnB uses a model where the business integrates people who own homes into the
market where consumers express demand. This is most accurately described as which
type of sharing economy?

Business + Person

50
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What has been a problem of implementing Peer to Peer sharing?

Finding platforms where it is legal and available

51
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Of the sharing economy models, which is the most similar to traditional business models?

Business to person

52
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What is the largest inhibitor to the growth of sharing economies?

trust

53
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A platform that receives renting fees receives those fees from the ____ and shares those
fees with the _____.

Seeker; owner

54
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Which of these is not a party that shares and exchanges value in a sharing economy?


Recommender

55
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Which of these is not a potential benefit of increasing a sharing economy?

Realize potential market gains

56
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What jobs are the most likely to be automated?

Those with a great deal of routine

57
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The degree to which an individual possesses an enduring belief in the importance of
customer satisfaction is defined as:

Customer orientation

58
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Some people innately have more of a customer orientation than others. T/F

True

59
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It is often most important for which kind of employee to have a strong customer orientation?

Front line

60
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When a supervisor doesn’t emphasize the importance of customer satisfaction, employees with higher customer orientation:

Perform fewer customer service behaviors than they might have

61
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When employees with high customer orientation are embedded in an organization that
emphasizes (and benefits from) customer satisfaction, profits are likely to:

Increase

62
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In most circumstances, higher levels of customer orientation lead to all of the following except:

Job turnover

63
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Employees with high customer orientation will thrive in what kind of job?

High customer interaction

64
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What are inside sales?

A type of sales in which interactions are initiated by the buyer

65
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A type of selling in which the organization is represented by multiple people, which might include a salesperson a technical support specialist, or others, is defined as:

Team Selling

66
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What is a key account?

A very large customer that provides a significant portion of revenues

67
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A form of personal selling that focuses on making an immediate sale with little or no concern for customer satisfaction or relationship development is defined as:

Transactional selling

68
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Transactional selling focuses on the customer relationship. T/F

False

69
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A form of personal selling that involves securing, developing, and maintaining long-term
relationships with profitable customers is defined as:

Relationship selling

70
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Which of these is not a step in the personal selling process?

sell

71
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When does initial contact with the potential consumer occur?


Approach

72
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What happens in the Presentation stage of the personal selling process?

Determine prospect needs and present benefits; handle objections

73
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SPIN selling is about asking questions of potential customers, T/F

True

74
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What is the point of SPIN selling?

Position your product or service as the solution to the customer’s problems connections to established brands for new brands to lean on

75
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The most successful salespeople focus on the beginning aspects of the SPIN method (e.g.
Situational and Problem questions) T/F

True

76
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What is the definition of price?

What is exchanged for the product, service, or idea

77
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_____ is not about what we put into our product, it’s what our customers get out of it.

value

78
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The value created of a product or service is determined from the perspective of the:

Strong connections to established brands for new brands to lean on

79
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Small changes in price do not have a very large impact on bottom line profits. T/F

False

80
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Which of these does not happen in a “smart industry”?

Companies fight with price only

81
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What is the first step in strategic pricing?

Knowing how your industry behaves

82
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What is the key difference between cost-based pricing and value-based pricing?

Where you start the process

83
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Value based pricing will always be more profitable than cost-based pricing. T/F

True

84
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What is price skimming?

Setting a high price for a new product to skim maximum revenues

85
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What is dynamic pricing?

Variable rate for each customer

86
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What is flat-rate pricing?

Single rate per time period

87
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Which of the following describes peak load or congestion pricing?

Variable rate depending on time of day or week

88
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You do not need to understand margin and markup if you are using value-based pricing. T/F

False

89
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What is the main difference between the equations for margin and mark-up?

Margin is (Price – Cost)/Price and Markup is (Price – Cost)/Cost

90
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Mark-up can be greater than 100% T/F

True

91
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A grocer has purchased a truckload of frozen dinners for $3 each. The grocer operates on
a margin of 30% for frozen food items. What is the retail price to the consumer?

4.29

92
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The competitive retail price for a stereo system is $300. Retail stores normally have a margin of 30% for such items. Wholesalers normally have a margin of 20% for such items. The manufacturer’s price is unknown. What steps should be taken to determine the manufacturer’s highest price?

Solve for Retail price, then Wholesale price, then Manufacturer price

93
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What is the breakeven point?

Where profits just cover costs

94
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Assume that Netflix has introduced a new bundle service for their streaming services. Bundle 1 includes a base price of $9 to cover 25 hours of streaming for the month and variable price of $0.10 for every 30 minutes over that 25 hours. Bundle 2 includes no base price, but a variable price of $0.25 for every 30 minutes of streaming per month. When a consumer attempts to decide which bundle to use, what is he or she determining?

Breakeven point

95
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What is defined as responsiveness of demand to changes in price?

Price elasticity

96
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A change in price in an elastic market is likely to show ____ change in demand when compared to a similar change in an inelastic market.

Greater

97
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In the Transactional Model of Communication, who fulfills the role of the Sender?

Market

98
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The message put in place by the Sender is always identical to the message received by the
Receiver. T/F

False

99
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The Communications Triangle encompasses more than just promotional interactions. T/F

True

100
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The “company” in the Communications Triangle represents the:

Formal company management