AP Biology Final Review

Unknown landslides can disrupt marine habitats by burying organisms that live on the ocean floor. The above shows the size of a population of a certain organism that lives on the ocean floor. The population affected by a recent landslide at the time indicated on the graph. Which of the following best predicts how the population will be affected by the landslide?

a. the surviving organisms will evolve into a new species
b. the reduced populations will likely have allelic frequencies that are different from the initial population
c. the population will adapt to deeper waters to avoid future landslides
d. the reduced population will have a greater number of different genes than the initial population

b

a group of students summarized the information on five great extinction events
end of the Ordovician period = trilobites, brachiopods, and corals
end of the Devonian period = marine families on tropical reefs, corals
end of the triassic period = mollusks, sponges, marine vertebrates
end of the cretaceous period = dinosaurs, brachiopods

The students are sampling a site in search of fossils from the Devonian period. based on the chart, which of the following would be the most reasonable plan for the students to follow?

a. searching horizontal rock layers in any class of rock and try to find those that contain the greatest number of fossils
b. collecting fossils from rock layers deposited prior to the permian period that contain some early vertebrate bones
c. looking in sedimentary layers next to bodies of water in order to find marine fossils of bivalves and trilobites
d. using relative dating techniques to determine the geological ages of the fossils found so they can calculate the rate of speciation of early organisms

b

a number of different phylogenies (evolutionary trees) have been proposed by scientists. These phylogenies are useful because they can be used to

a. determine when two similar populations of a species evolved into two separate species
b. evaluate which group of organisms may be most closely related
c. demonstrate that all photosynthetic organisms are members of the kingdom plantae
d. demonstrate that natural selection is the prevailing force in evolution
e. demonstrate which taxa (groups of organisms) contain the most highly evolved species

b

all of the following are examples of prezygotic genetic isolating mechanisms EXCEPT:

a. male fireflies of different species have different flash patterns
b. three closely related orchid species flower on different days
c. the progeny of a cross between two different lizard species fail to develop properly.
d. one species of snake lives in water and another is terrestrial

c

a small number of lizards from a mainland population have been deposited on four isolated islands because of the effects of a rare strong storm
Which of the following best predicts the outcome of these lizards reproducing for many generations on the islands?

a. courtship rituals specific to each island lizard species prevent the lizards from interbreeding
b. speciation results from bottleneck events that happened before the ancestral species reached the islands
c. the different species that currently exist are the result of hybridization between lizards from different islands
d. the isolation prevents gene flow; thus the lizards on different islands experience prezygotic isolation

d

which of the following statements best explains how a condition of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium results in a population that exhibits stable allele frequencies (i.e., a non-evolving population)?

a. large populations are not subject to natural selection
b. random mating prevents gene flow from changing allele frequencies.
c. without migration or mutation, new alleles cannot be introduced to the population
d. in the absence of selection, allele frequencies in a population will not change

c

Based on the experimental results, which of the following is the best evolutionary explanation for the occurrence of ARD in C. elgans?

a. the ability to enter ARD provides a strong selective advantage because reproduction can occur despite periods of food scarcity
b. acquiring the genes for ARD gives individuals a selective advantage because they produce more offspring than do individuals who cannot enter ARD
c. individuals who can enter ARD are selected for in the population because they live longer than do individuals who cannot enter ARD
d. individuals who can enter ARD have high fitness because they can reproduce even when food is scarce

a

the bird, Parus major, is commonly found in man-made habitats. During the summer these birds primarily feed on insects, and in the winter, when insects are scarce, they forage in gardens and bird feeders for seeds, nuts, and berries. Recently, climate change has led to a decrease in food available from gardens, and scientists have observed that the average beak length of birds has increased.
Which of the following best explains the directional shift in beak length in these bird?

a. longer beaks allow the birds to better fend off predators
b. longer beaks increase the fitness of the birds in wild habitats
c. longer beaks allow the birds to better access seed in bird feeders
d. longer beaks decrease the fitness of the birds in wild habitats

c

in eastern gray squirrels, Sciurus carolinensis, the allele for black fur (B) is dominant to the allele for gray fur (b). In a particular population of gray squirrels, 64% have black fur and 36% have gray fur. A researcher calculated the allelic frequencies to be B=0.4 and b=0.6. Five years later, the researcher returned to the location and determined the allelic frequencies within the squirrel population to be B=0.6 and b=0.4.
Which of the following could best explain the increase in the frequency of the B allele in the population after five years?

a. the frequency of the B allele increased because it is the dominant allele
b. the frequency of the B allele increased because squirrels with gray fur exhibited greater fitness
c. the frequency of the B allele increased due to the selective pressure of the environment
d. the frequency of the B allele increased because black squirrels randomly mate with other eastern gray squirrels

c

both species of garter snakes prey on the California newt, Taricha torosa, a small amphibian that produces a potent neurotoxin (TTX) in its skin. However, neither species of garter snake is affected by TTX. The resistance to TTX is associated with mutations in the SCN4A gene. Which of the following best supports a claim that TTX resistance arose independently in T. atratus and T. sirtalis?

a. the stomach contents in fossils of both species include the remains of food items that contained TTX.
b. both species of snakes possess the SCN4A gene
c. the two species of snakes have different genetic mutations in the SCN4A gene
d. T. atratus and T. siralis are sister species that share many of the same morphological features

c

the amino acid sequence of cytochrome c is exactly the same in humans and chimpanzees. There is a difference of 13 amino acids between the cytochrome c of humans and dogs, and a difference of 10 amino acids between the cytochrome c of humans and rattlesnakes.
Which of the following statements is best supported by these data?

a. rattlesnake apparently gave rise evolutionarily to the dog, chimpanzee, and human.
b. cytochrome c apparently has an entirely different function in rattlesnakes than in mammals, which explains the difference in the number of amino acids.
c. cytochrome c is not found universally in animals
d. cytochrome c from a rattlesnake could function in a dog, but not in a chimpanzee
e. the human is apparently more closely related to the chimpanzee than to the dog or rattlesnake.

e

Table 1 shows a trend of increasing milk yield for cows. part of the increase in milk production can be attributed to improved nutrition and health protocols for dairy cows.
Based on the information provided which of the following best describes the source of the rapid increase in milk production from 1975 to 2015?

a. from the 1970s to the early 2000s, dariy cows were not used for beef production
b. starting in the 1970s, farmers increased the selective breeding of cows and bulls for offspring that produced more milk
c. reproduction rates in cows and bulls increased significantly in the 1970s.
d. cows were healthier after the 1970s, so they lived longer and produced more milk during their lifetime

b

Both myoglobin and hemoglobin are proteins that bind reversibly with molecular oxygen. The graph below shows the oxygen-binding saturation of each protein at different concentrations of oxygen. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. at 10 mn Hg partial pressure, hemoglobin binds oxygen but myoglobin does not
b. at 20 mn Hg partial pressure, myoglobin and hemoglobin bind oxygen in equal amounts
c. at 40 mn Hg partial pressure, myoglobin has a greater affinity for oxygen than hemoglobin has
d. at 80 mn Hg partial pressure, myoglobin binds twice as much oxygen as hemoglobin binds

c

The CFTR protein is made up of 1,480 amino acids linked together in a chain. Some humans produce a version of the CFTR protein in which phenylalanine (an amino acid) has been deleted from position 508 of the amino acid chain.
Which of the following best predicts how the amino acid deletion will affect the structure of the CFTR protein?

a. it will have no observable effect on the structure on the CFTR protein.
b. it will affect the primary structure of the CFTR protein, but the other levels of protein structure will not be affected
c. it will affect the secondary and tertiary structure of the CFTR protein, but the primary structure will not be affected
d. it will affect the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of the CFTR protein

d

Which of the following is most directly responsible for water's unique properties?

a. it contains oxygen atoms
b. it contains hydrogen atoms
c. it is an ionic compound
d. it forms hydrogen bonds
e. it is nonpolar

d

The carbohydrates glucose, galactose, and fructose have the same chemical formula (C6H12O6) but different structural formulas, as represented in the figure.
Which of the following statements about glucose, galactose, and fructose is most likely to be true?
a. the carbohydrates have the same properties because they have the same number of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms
b. the carbohydrates have the same properties because they each have a single carbon-oxygen double bond
c. the carbohydrates have different properties because they have different arrangements of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms
d. the carbohydrates have different properties because they have different numbers of carbon-carbon bonds

c

Which of the following correctly illustrates a dipeptide and an amino acid in the optimal position to tripeptide?

a.
b.
c.
d.

a.

used to carry the genetic code
a. proteins
b. carbohydrates
c. nucleic acids
d. lipids
e. steroids

c

Whic of the following graphs is the most appropriate representation of the experimental results documented in the table?

a. pie chart
b. bar graph
c. line graph
d. scatter plot

b

Which of the following best describes the effect of a greater number of cysteine amino acids on the stability of the protein?

a. the change has no effect on the stability of the protein because only one type of amino acid is involved
b. the change leads to increased protein stability because of an increased number of S-S bonds in the tertiary structure of the proteins
c. the change leads to decreased protein stability because of an increased number of S-S bonds in the tertiary structure of the proteins
d. the change leads to increased protein stability only when the added cysteine amino acids are next to other cystine amino acids in the primary structure

b

G-C --> A-C
Which of the following best represents the DNA of the two daughter cells produced when a bacterial cell with this particular mismatch replicates in DNA and divides.

a. G-C and G-C
b. A-T and G-C
c. A-T and A-T
d. A-C and A-c

b

Which of the following statements best justifies the claim that the conditions in at least one of the experiments could generate the molecular building blocks essential for life?

a. the CO2 gas and water vapor in experiment 1 could react spontaneously to produce the phospholipids required by the first life-forms.
b. the nitrogen gas and ammonia gas in experiment 1 could provide the elemental nitrogen required for the formation of amino acids
c. the sulfur dioxide gas in experiment 2 could donate the excited electrons required to drive the process of photosynthesis
d. the methane gas in experiment 2 could act as the electron acceptor required to complete the process of cellular respiration

b

the synthesis of a protein or carbohydrate polymers always produces which of the following as a byproduct?

a. ATP
b. Oxygen
c. carbon dioxide
d. urea
e. water

e

Which of the following describes how amino acids affect the tertiary structure of a protein?

a. the number of amino acids determines the tertiary structure of the protein.
b. the interactions of the different R-groups with other R-groups and with their environment determine the tertiary structure of the proteins
c. the r-group of the last amino acid that is added to a growing polypeptide chain determines the next amino acid that is added to the chain
d. the sequence of the amino acids in the polypeptide chain determines the protein's primary structure but has not effect on its tertiary structure

a

Which of the following characteristics of Figure 1 best shows that the fragment is RNA and not DNA

a. the 5' to 3' orientation of the nucleotide chain
b. the identity of each nitrogen base
c. the charges of the phosphate groups
d. the type of bond linking the nucleotides together

b

based on the molecular structures shown in the figure, which molecule is likely to be solid at room temperature?

a. linoleic acid, because the absence of carbon-carbon double bonds allows the molecules to pack closely together
b. linoleic acid, because the presence of carbon-carbon double bonds prevents the molecules from packing closely together
c. palmiitic acid, because of carbon-carbon double bonds allows the molecules to pack closely together
d. palmitic acid, because the presence of carbon-carbon double bonds prevents the molecules from packing closely together

c

Water and ammonia interact to form hydrogen bonds.
Which statement best helps explain the formation of the hydrogen bond represented in the figure?

a. the oxygen has a partial positive charge, and the nitrogen has a partial negative charge
b. the nitrogen has a partial negative charge, and the hydrogen attached to the oxygen has a partial positive charge
c. the hydrogen attached to the oxygen as a partial negative charge, and the nitrogen also has a partial negative charge
d. the nitrogen has a partial positive charge, and the hydrogen attached to the oxygen also has a partial positive charge

b

the figure shows a model to the exchange of matter between the organisms that live together in an aquarium. The model includes matter exchange between plants, fish, and bacteria. The bacteria are represented as rod-shaped organisms living in the gravel at the bottom of the aquarium.
Which of the following statement best describes how molecules released by the fish become nutrients for the plants?

a. the carbon dioxide molecules released by the fish are converted by the bacteria to oxygen atoms, which are used by the plants to make water molecules
b. the oxygen molecules releassed by the fish are converted by the bacteria to ammonia molecules, which are used by the plants to make lipids and fatty acids.
c. the nitrites released by the fish are converted by the bacteria to carbon dioxide molecules, which are used by the plants to make carbohydrates
d. the ammonia molecules released by the fish are converted by the bacteria to nitrates, which are used by the plants to make proteins and nucleic acids.

d

Which of the following conclusions is most clearly supported by the representations of nucleic acid #1 and nucleic acid #2?

a. nucleic acid 1 contains only pyrimidines
b. nucleic acid 1 contains the sugar ribose, where as the nucleic acid 2 contains the sugar deoxyribose
c. nucleic acid 1 contains positively charged phosphate groups, whereas nucleic acid 2 does not
d. nucleic acid contains adenine-thymine base pairs, whereas nucleic acid 2 does not

d

Which of the following best describes the structures of carbohydrates?

a. they only occur as disaccharides
b. they occur as monomers, chains of monomers, and branched strucutres
c. they only occur as long branched structures
d. they occur as chains of monomers that hydrogen bond with complementary chains of monomers

b

The sequences for two short fragments of DNA are shown above. Which of the following is one way in which these two segments would differ?

a. segment 1 would not code for mRNA because both strands have T, a base not found in RNA
b. segment 1 would be more soluble in water than segment 2 because it has more phosphate groups
c. segment 1 would become denatured at a lower temperature than would segment 2 because A-T base pairs have two hydrogen bonds whereas G-C base pairs have three
d. segment 1 must be from a prokaryote because it has predominantly A-T base pairs

c

Based on figure 1, which of the following best describes how the properties of water at an air-water interface enable an insect to walk on the water's surface?

a. covalent bonds between water molecules and the air above provide cohesion
b. ionic bonds between molecules at the surface of the water provide an electric charge, which attracts the feet of the insect, keeping it on the surface
c. polar covalent bonds between molecules at the surface of the water provide adhesion, which supports the weight of the insect
d. hydrogen bonds between molecules at the surface of the water provide surface tension, which allows the water surface to deform but not break under the insect

d