HESI Hints & NCLEX Gems

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430 Terms

1
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2
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What is the correct order of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

Physiologic → Safety → Love and Belonging → Esteem → Self-actualization.

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What are the steps of the Nursing Process in order?

Assessment → Diagnosis (Analysis) → Planning → Implementation → Evaluation.

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What do the ABCs stand for?

Airway, Breathing, Circulation.

5
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What is the normal Hgb for males?

14–18.

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What is the normal Hgb for females?

12–16.

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What is the normal Hct for males?

42–52%.

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What is the normal Hct for females?

37–47%.

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What is the normal RBC count for males?

4.7–6.1 million.

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What is the normal RBC count for females?

4.2–5.4 million.

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What is the normal WBC count?

4.5–11k.

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What is the normal platelet count?

150–400k.

13
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What is the normal PT time (warfarin)?

11–12.5 sec (therapeutic range is 1.5–2 × normal).

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What is the normal APTT for heparin?

0–70 sec (therapeutic range is 1.5–2.5 × normal).

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What is the normal BUN?

10–20.

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What is the normal Creatinine?

0.5–1.2.

17
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What is the normal Glucose?

70–110.

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What is newborn bilirubin?

1–12.

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What is newborn phenylalanine?

Not specified; noted as "Phenylalanine Newborn."

20
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What is the normal sodium (Na+) range?

136–145.

21
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What is the normal potassium (K+) range?

3.5–5.

22
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What EKG changes occur in hypokalemia?

Prominent U waves, depressed ST segment, flat T waves.

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What EKG changes occur in hyperkalemia?

Tall T-waves, prolonged PR interval, wide QRS.

24
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What is the normal calcium (Ca++) range?

9–10.5.

25
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What are signs of hypocalcemia?

Muscle spasms, convulsions, cramps/tetany, +Trousseau's, +Chvostek’s, prolonged ST interval, prolonged QT segment.

26
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What is the normal magnesium range?

1.5–2.5.

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What is the normal chloride (Cl–) range?

96–106.

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What is the normal phosphorus range?

3–4.5.

29
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What is the normal albumin range?

3.5–5.

30
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What is the normal urine specific gravity?

1.005–1.030.

31
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What is a normal Hgb A1c?

4–6%.

32
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What is the therapeutic range for Dilantin?

10–20.

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What is the therapeutic range for Lithium?

0.5–1.5.

34
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What is normal pH?

7.35–7.45.

35
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What is normal CO₂?

35–45 (respiratory driver; high = acidosis).

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What is normal HCO₃?

21–28 (metabolic driver; high = alkalosis).

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What is normal PaO₂?

80–100.

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What is normal O₂ saturation?

95–100%.

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What is the antidote for Digoxin?

Digiband.

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What is the antidote for Coumadin/Warfarin?

Vitamin K.

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What is the antidote for benzodiazepines?

Flumazenil (Tomazicon).

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What is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity?

Calcium gluconate.

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What is the antidote for Heparin?

Protamine sulfate.

44
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What is the antidote for Tylenol overdose?

Mucomist (17 doses + loading dose).

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What is the antidote for opiates?

Narcan (Naloxone).

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What is the antidote for cholinergic meds (myasthenic bradycardia)?

Atropine.

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What is the antidote for methotrexate?

Leucovorin.

48
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Which tasks can ONLY an RN perform?

Blood products, clotting factors, sterile dressing changes and procedures, assessments requiring clinical judgment, and is ultimately responsible for all delegated duties.

49
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What can UAP perform?

Non-sterile procedures.

50
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What are universal (standard) precautions?

Hand hygiene, gloves, gowns for splashes, masks/eye protection for splashes, no recapping needles, use mouthpiece/Ambu bag for resuscitation, avoid care with skin lesions.

51
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What infections require droplet precautions (mask)?

Sepsis, scarlet fever, strep, fifth disease, pertussis, pneumonia, influenza, diphtheria, epiglottitis, rubella, rubeola, meningitis, mycoplasma, adenovirus, rhinovirus.

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What other precaution does RSV require?

Contact precautions.

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What precautions does TB require?

Respiratory isolation.

54
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What are contact precautions?

Universal + goggles, mask, and gown.

55
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What patients should not be roomed with immunosuppressed patients?

Infection patients.

56
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What color do body fluids turn with rifampin?

Rust/orange/red.

57
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What color does urine turn with Pyridium?

Orange/red/pink.

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What differentiates myasthenic crisis from cholinergic crisis?

Myasthenic crisis = weakness + vital sign changes (needs more meds).
Cholinergic crisis = weakness + NO vital sign changes (reduce meds).

59
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How do you initially treat diabetic coma vs insulin shock?

Give glucose first; if no improvement, give insulin.

60
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What does fruity breath indicate?

Diabetic ketoacidosis.

61
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What does “If it comes out of your ass it’s acidosis” mean?

Diarrhea causes metabolic acidosis.

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What does vomiting cause in acid-base balance?

Metabolic alkalosis.

63
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What does salty-tasting skin indicate?

Cystic fibrosis.

64
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When should Lipitor be taken?

In the evening; avoid grapefruit juice.

65
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What does stroke do to the tongue and uvula?

Tongue points toward lesion; uvula deviates away.

66
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When should digoxin be held?

HR < 60.

67
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What should a patient do after the first ACE inhibitor dose?

Stay in bed for 3 hours.

68
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What juice should be avoided with calcium channel blockers?

Grapefruit juice.

69
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What type of hazard is anthrax?

Multi-vector biohazard.

70
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How do you prevent pulmonary air embolism?

Trendelenburg (HOB down) + left side.

71
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What is the primary concern in head trauma and seizures?

Maintain airway.

72
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How do you treat duodenal vs gastric ulcers?

Duodenal ulcer: feed (pain relieved by food).
Gastric ulcer: starve.

73
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What are signs of acute pancreatitis?

Fetal position, Turner's sign (flank bruising), Cullen’s sign (umbilical bruising), board-like abdomen, guarding, autodigestion by trypsin.

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When should tube feeding be held?

Residual > 100 mL.

75
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What does RACE and PASS refer to?

Fire safety procedures.

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How often should restraints be checked?

Every 30 minutes; ensure 2 finger space.

77
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What is Guillain–Barré progression?

Weakness ascending from legs upward → respiratory arrest.

78
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When is a trough level drawn?

~30 min before next dose.

79
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When is a peak level drawn?

30–60 minutes after drug administration.

80
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When do most suicides occur during treatment?

After the beginning of improvement when energy levels increase.

81
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What food interaction do MAOIs have?

Tyramine foods can cause a hypertensive crisis.

82
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Name three MAOIs.

Nardil, Marplan, and Parnate.

83
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How long of a medication gap is required before starting MAOIs after SSRIs or TCAs?

A 2-week gap.

84
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What is the therapeutic range for lithium?

0.5–1.5.

85
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What are main side effects of phenothiazines (typical antipsychotics)?

EPS and photosensitivity.

86
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What do atypical antipsychotics treat?

Positive and negative symptoms, with less EPS.

87
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What conditions are benzodiazepines especially useful for?

Alcohol withdrawal and status epilepticus.

88
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What is Antabuse used for?

Alcohol deterrence by causing illness when alcohol is consumed.

89
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What are symptoms of alcohol withdrawal (Delirium Tremens)?

Tachycardia, tachypnea, anxiety, nausea, tremors, hallucinations, paranoia; begins 12–36 hours after last drink.

90
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What are symptoms of opiate withdrawal?

Watery eyes, runny nose, dilated pupils, N/V/D, cramps.

91
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What are symptoms of stimulant withdrawal?

Depression, fatigue, anxiety, disturbed sleep.

92
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Hypoventilation leads to what acid-base condition?

Acidosis (too much CO₂).

93
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Hyperventilation leads to what acid-base condition?

Alkalosis (low CO₂).

94
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What precaution applies to a limb after a mastectomy?

No BP or IV on the affected side.

95
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What pupil finding suggests opiate overdose?

Pinpoint pupils.

96
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What type of brain lesion causes decerebrate posturing?

Midbrain lesions.

97
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What type of brain lesion causes decorticate posturing?

Cortex lesions.

98
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What is the minimum urine output indicating adequate heart and kidney function?

30 mL/hr.

99
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What is another term for kidney stone?

Cholelithiasis.

100
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What does flank pain indicate in kidney stones?

Stone in kidney or upper ureter.