CCNA ITN V7 Practice Questions Set #1

questions and answers from the first CCNA practice exam

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 22. What service is the client requesting?

A) SSH

B) TFTP

C) DHCP

D) DNS

A - SSH

What does the value of the window size specify?
A) the amount of data that can be sent at one time
B) the amount of data that can be sent before an acknowledgment is required
C) the total number of bits received during this TCP session
D) a random number that is used in establishing a connection with the 3-way handshake

B - the amount of data that can be sent before an acknowledgment is required

To which TCP port group does the port 414 belong?
A) well-known
B) private or dynamic
C) public
D) registered

D - registered

An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives an error message. What is the problem?

A) The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.
B) The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
C) The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.
D) The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.

C - The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.

What is a user trying to determine when issuing a ping 10.1.1.1 command on a PC?
A) if the TCP/IP stack is functioning on the PC without putting traffic on the wire
B) if there is connectivity with the destination device
C) the path that traffic will take to reach the destination
D) what type of device is at the destination

B - if there is connectivity with the destination device

What is a characteristic of a switch virtual interface (SVI)?​
A) An SVI is created in software and requires a configured IP address and a subnet mask in order to provide remote access to the switch.
B) Although it is a virtual interface, it needs to have physical hardware on the device associated with it.
C) SVIs do not require the no shutdown command to become enabled.
D) SVIs come preconfigured on Cisco switches.

A - An SVI is created in software and requires a configured IP address and a subnet mask in order to provide remote access to the switch.

Match the descriptions to the terms. The part of the operating system that interfaces with applications and the user:
A) shell
B) users interact with the operating system by typing commands
C) GUI
D) the part of the OS that interacts directly with the device hardware

A - shell

What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC value is different than the value in the FCS field?
A) The switch notifies the source of the bad frame.
B) The switch places the new CRC value in the FCS field and forwards the frame.
C) The switch drops the frame.
D) The switch floods the frame to all ports except the port through which the frame arrived to notify the hosts of the error.

C - The switch drops the frame.

What is an important concept related to the cut-through method of switching?
A) The fragment-free switching offers the lowest level of latency.
B) Fast-forward switching can be viewed as a compromise between store-and-forward switching and fragment-free switching.
C) Fragment-free switching is the typical cut-through method of switching.
D) Packets can be relayed with errors when fast-forward switching is used.

A - The fragment-free switching offers the lowest level of latency.

Which two issues can cause both runts and giants in Ethernet networks?
A) using the incorrect cable type
B) half-duplex operations
C) a malfunctioning NIC
D) electrical interference on serial interfaces

B - half-duplex operations, C - a malfunctioning NIC

Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication?
A) implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media
B) enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
C) integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper
D) places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame

B - enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium, D - places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame

Which two commands could be used to check if DNS name resolution is working properly on a Windows PC?
A) nslookup cisco.com
B) ping cisco.com
C) ipconfig /flushdns
D) net cisco.com

A - nslookup cisco.com, B - ping cisco.com

What approach best provides cost effective redundancy for the Internet connection?
A) Add a second NIC to the web server.
B) Add a connection to the Internet via a DSL line to another ISP.
C) Add another web server to prepare failover support.
D) Add multiple connections between the switches and the edge router.

B - Add a connection to the Internet via a DSL line to another ISP.

What is the best command to verify that IPv6 routing has been enabled?
A) copy running-config startup-config
B) show interfaces
C) show ip nat translations
D) show running-config

D - show running-config

What IP address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?
A) 192.168.235.234
B) 203.0.113.3
C) 192.168.235.1
D) 10.234.235.254

D - 10.234.235.254

Match the command with the device mode at which the command is entered: login
A) R1(config-line)#
B) ip address 192.168.4.4 255.255.255.0
C) service password-encryption
D) enable

A - R1(config-line)#

A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?
A) The IOS image is corrupt.
B) Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.
C) The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.
D) The POST process has detected hardware failure.

C - The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.

What service is provided by POP3?
A) Retrieves email from the server by downloading the email to the local mail application of the client.
B) An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
C) Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
D) Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.

A - Retrieves email from the server by downloading the email to the local mail application of the client.

Which networking model is being used if one student is drawing while the other writes?
A) peer-to-peer
B) client-based
C) master-slave
D) point-to-point

A - peer-to-peer

What command is used to manually query a DNS server to resolve a specific host name?
A) tracert
B) ipconfig /displaydns
C) nslookup
D) net

C - nslookup

Which PDU is processed when a host computer is de-encapsulating a message at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model?
A) bits
B) frame
C) packet
D) segment

D - segment

Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as two layers of the TCP/IP model?
A) data link
B) network
C) physical
D) session
E) transport

B - network, E - transport

Which three layers of the OSI model are comparable in function to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (select 3)
A) presentation
B) physical
C) network
D) data link
E) transport
F) application
G) session

A - presentation, F - application, G - session

What task might a user be trying to accomplish by using the ping 2001:db8:FACE:39::10 command?
A) verifying that there is connectivity within the local network
B) creating a network performance benchmark to a server on the company intranet
C) determining the path to reach the remote server
D) verifying that there is connectivity to the internet

D - verifying that there is connectivity to the internet

Which two ICMP messages are used by both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols?
A) neighbor solicitation
B) router advertisement
C) router solicitation
D) protocol unreachable
E) route redirection

D - protocol unreachable, E - route redirection

What is the technician trying to accomplish by pinging 127.0.0.1?
A) pinging a host computer that has the IP address 127.0.0.1 on the network
B) tracing the path to a host computer on the network and the network has the IP address 127.0.0.1
C) checking the IP address on the network card
D) testing the integrity of the TCP/IP stack on the local machine

D - testing the integrity of the TCP/IP stack on the local machine

Why is CSMA/CD no longer necessary?
A) the virtually unlimited availability of IPv6 addresses
B) the use of CSMA/CA
C) the use of full-duplex capable Layer 2 switches
D) the development of half-duplex switch operation

C - the use of full-duplex capable Layer 2 switches

What does a router do when it receives a Layer 2 frame over the network medium?
A) re-encapsulates the packet into a new frame
B) forwards the new frame appropriate to the medium of that segment of the physical network
C) determines the best path
D) de-encapsulates the frame

A - re-encapsulates the packet into a new frame

Which two acronyms represent the data link sublayers that Ethernet relies upon to operate?
A) SFD
B) LLC
C) CSMA
D) MAC
E) FCS

B - LLC, D - MAC

Which physical topology is an example of a hybrid topology for a LAN?
A) bus
B) extended star
C) ring
D) partial mesh

B - extended star

Given network 172.18.109.0, which subnet mask would be used if 6 host bits were available?
A) 255.255.192.0
B) 255.255.224.0
C) 255.255.255.192
D) 255.255.255.248
E) 255.255.255.252

C - 255.255.255.192

What type of address is 198.133.219.162?
A) link-local
B) public
C) loopback
D) multicast

B - public

What does the IP address 192.168.1.15/29 represent?
A) subnetwork address
B) unicast address
C) multicast address
D) broadcast address

D - broadcast address

Why is NAT not needed in IPv6?​
A) Because IPv6 has integrated security, there is no need to hide the IPv6 addresses of internal networks.
B) The problems that are induced by NAT applications are solved because the IPv6 header improves packet handling by intermediate routers.
C) The end-to-end connectivity problems that are caused by NAT are solved because the number of routes increases with the number of nodes that are connected to the Internet.
D) Any host or user can get a public IPv6 network address because the number of available IPv6 addresses is extremely large.

D - Any host or user can get a public IPv6 network address because the number of available IPv6 addresses is extremely large.

What routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a destination network?
A) directly-connected routes
B) local routes
C) remote routes
D) C and L source routes

C - remote routes

Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains a unicast, multicast, or broadcast address?
A) destination IPv4 address
B) protocol
C) TTL
D) header checksum

A - destination IPv4 address

If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
A) There is no impact on communications.
B) The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
C) The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
D) The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.

C - The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.

Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address fe80:0000:0000:0000:0220:0b3f:f0e0:0029?
A) fe80:9ea:0:2200::fe0:290
B) fe80:9ea0::2020::bf:e0:9290
C) fe80::220:b3f:f0e0:29
D) fe80:9ea0::2020:0:bf:e0:9290

C - fe80::220:b3f:f0e0:29

Which IPv6 address is one of the link-local addresses of the workstation?
A) ::1/128
B) fe80::30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128
C) fe80::/64
D) 2001:0:9d38:6ab8:30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128

B - fe80::30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128

What type of IPv6 address is represented by ::1/128?
A) EUI-64 generated link-local
B) global unicast
C) unspecified
D) loopback

D - loopback

Which statement describes network security?
A) It supports growth over time in accordance with approved network design procedures.
B) It synchronizes traffic flows using timestamps.
C) It ensures sensitive corporate data is available for authorized users.
D) It prioritizes data flows in order to give priority to delay-sensitive traffic.

C - It ensures sensitive corporate data is available for authorized users.

Which two devices would be described as intermediary devices? (select two)
A) wireless LAN controller
B) server
C) assembly line robots
D) IPS
E) gaming console
F) retail scanner

A - wireless LAN controller, D - IPS

What characteristic describes spyware?
A) software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user
B) the use of stolen credentials to access private data
C) an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
D) a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network

A - software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user.

What will the switch do with the frame sent from PC1 addressed to PC3?
A) The switch will discard the frame.
B) The switch will forward the frame to all ports.
C) The switch will forward the frame only to port 2.
D) The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3.

B - The switch will forward the frame to all ports.

Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?
A) 0.0.0.0
B) 255.255.255.255
C) the physical address of the destination host
D) FFFF.FFFF.FFFF

D - FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.

What will happen next after PC1 issues an ARP request?
A) SW1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/1 MAC address.
B) RT1 will send an ARP reply with its own Fa0/0 MAC address.
C) RT1 will forward the ARP request to PC3.
D) RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC3 MAC address.
E) RT1 will send an ARP reply with its own Fa0/1 MAC address.

B - RT1 will send an ARP reply with its own Fa0/0 MAC address.

Which threat is the network administrator trying to prevent by issuing a login command?
A) a user who is trying to guess a password to access the router
B) a worm that is attempting to access another part of the network
C) an unidentified individual who is trying to access the network equipment room
D) a device that is trying to inspect the traffic on a link

A - a user who is trying to guess a password to access the router.

Which statement describes the characteristics of packet-filtering and stateful firewalls?
A) A packet-filtering firewall uses session layer information to track the state of a connection, whereas a stateful firewall uses application layer information to track the state of a connection.
B) Both stateful and packet-filtering firewalls can filter at the application layer.
C) A packet-filtering firewall typically can filter up to the transport layer, whereas a stateful firewall can filter up to the session layer.
D) A stateful firewall can filter application layer information, whereas a packet-filtering firewall cannot filter beyond the network layer.

D - A stateful firewall can filter application layer information, whereas a packet-filtering firewall cannot filter beyond the network layer.

What are two ways to protect a computer from malware?
A) Empty the browser cache.
B) Use antivirus software.
C) Delete unused software.
D) Keep software up to date.
E) Defragment the hard disk.

B - Use antivirus software, D - Keep software up to date.

What type of attack is being launched at Ciscoville?
A) access
B) Trojan horse
C) reconnaissance
D) DoS

D - DoS.

Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling?
A) Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.
B) Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices.
C) Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.
D) Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cables and laser technology for multimode cables.
E) Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.

A - Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity, C - Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.

What OSI physical layer term describes the measure of the transfer of bits across a medium over a given period of time?
A) latency
B) goodput
C) throughput
D) bandwidth

D - bandwidth.

What is the maximum possible throughput between the PC and the server?
A) 10 Mb/s
B) 1000 Mb/s
C) 128 kb/s
D) 100 Mb/s

D - 100 Mb/s.

Match the description with the media: wireless.
A) This type of media provides the most mobility options.
B) coaxial
C) optical fiber
D) STP

A - This type of media provides the most mobility options.

What does the highlighted item in the TCP section of Wireshark capture state?
A) Window size: 9017.
B) checking the IP address on the network card
C) testing the integrity of the TCP/IP stack on the local machine
D) pinging a host computer that has the IP address 127.0.0.1 on the network

A - Window size: 9017.