K3 Exam Review

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76 Terms

1
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What Navaids use LF and MF?

NDB’s

190-415kHz and 510-535kHz

2
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What Navaids use HF?

5680kHz is the designated channel for air-ground communications in remote areas.

2500-30000kHz

3
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What Navaids use VHF?

VOR and ILS systems

30-300MHz

Frequencies from 108.00 to 117.95 MHz are used for navigation aids such as VORs and ILS’s

Frequencies from 118.00 to 136.00 MHz are used for civil aviation voice communications.

4
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What Navaids use UHF?

DME, TACAN, GP portion of ILS

300-3000MHz

UHF frequencies are mostly allocated to special

government use, for example National Defence.

5
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Advantages of LF, MF and HF:

• Long range

• Site location not as critical as compared to VHF

6
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Disadvantages of LF, MF and HF:

• Subject to lots of interference

• Bulky equipment

• Subject to fading

• Stations interfere with one another - long range

7
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Advantages of VHF:

• Virtually free from static

• Not subject to fading

• Lighter equipment

• Higher fidelity

8
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Disadvantages of VHF:

  • Reliant on line of sight.

  • Line of sight reduces signals at low altitudes. Range is approximately 10 miles for every thousand feet.

9
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What are the advantages of GPS?

• It accurately reports position in three dimensions (longitude, latitude and altitude).

• It is free of all environmental limitations works day or night, regardless of the season or weather conditions.

• It provides approaches at airports where none existed and increases existing approaches at airports with limited approach aids.

• It provides better navigation for VFR aircraft. It allows for more efficient routes.

10
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What are the 4 segments of an instrument approach procedure?

• Initial Approach

• Intermediate Approach

• Final Approach

• Missed Approach

11
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Decode the following abbreviations:

IAP

IAF

IF

FAF

DH (Decision height)

MDA (Non-precision)

MAP

PT

Instrument approach procedure

Initial approach fix

Intermediate fix

Final approach fix

Decision height

Minimum descent altitude

Missed approach point

Procedure turn

12
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The pilot-in-command of an IFR aircraft who intends to conduct an approach to or a landing at an uncontrolled aerodrome shall report the pilots intentions:

(i) five minutes before the estimated time of commencing the approach procedure, stating the estimated time of landing,

(ii) when commencing a circling manoeuvre, and

(iii) as soon as practicable after initiating a missed approach procedure

13
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The pilot-in-command of an IFR aircraft who intends to conduct an approach to or a landing at an uncontrolled aerodrome shall report the aircrafts position:

(i) when passing the fix outbound, where the pilot-in-command intends to conduct a procedure turn or, if no procedure turn is intended, when the aircraft first intercepts the final approach course,

(ii) when passing the final approach fix or three minutes before the estimated time of landing where no final approach fix exists

(iii) on final approach.

14
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Decode the following abbreviations:

TORA

TODA

ASDA

LDA

Take Off Run Available - Length of runway declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off.

Take Off Distance Available - Length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway, if provided.

Accelerate Stop Distance Available - Length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way, if provided.

Landing Distance Available - Length of runway which is declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane landing.

15
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What kind of info ATC will give you about an arrival IFR aircraft?

Note: This info will be passed at least 15 minutes before the aircraft is expected to establish radio communication with the FSS.

• A/C ident / type / point of departure /estimate over a fix

• Revision to data previously passed

• Position report over an approach fix if it differs by 3 minutes or more from a previous estimate

16
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What kind of messages FSS relay to aircraft from ATC?

17
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What are the three properties of the atmosphere?

• Mobility or freedom of motion.

• The ability to be compressed or packed closely together, allowing the air to become more dense

• The ability to expand or move further apart allowing the air to be less dense.

18
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How does rising and descending air affect the temperature, density and pressure?

Rising air: Temp, density and pressure decreases

Descending air: Temp, density and pressure increases

19
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Does air compress or expand when it rises?

Air expands when it rises and compresses when it descends.

20
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Half of the total weight of the atmosphere lies below what altitude_____________?

5.5km (18000ft)

21
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What are the two forms of radiation from the sun?

Absorption and Reflection

22
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What are the two different types of wavelengths?

Short waves and Long waves.

Short waves heat the ground through absorption, while long waves are reflected off the ground

23
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Does the sun transmit long or short-wave radiation?

Short

24
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What is the main type of radiation absorbed by the atmosphere?

Long waves

25
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Is the lower portion of the atmosphere heated by the sun or the earth?

The earth

26
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Is it normally cooler or warmer on a cloudy day? Why?

Cooler, clouds reflect most short waves

27
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What is Condensation Nuclei?

Minute solid particles that are needed for condensation and crystallization of water vapor. They can also reduce visibility significantly.

28
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Air is _____; it can be compressed and expanded

mobile

29
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What is the standard atmospheric pressure in inches of mercury?

29.92Hg

30
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What are the 5 lifting processes/agents?

• Convection

• Mechanical Turbulence

• Orographic lift

• Frontal lift

• Convergence

31
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What is convective lift?

Lift can result from the uneven heating of the Earth’s surface. Air that has been warmed becomes less dense.

32
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What is mechanical turbulence?

The result of the friction produced from the interaction between the surface of the earth and the air.

3 factors that influence intensity

• Unevenness of the ground

• Speed of the wind

• Stability of the air

33
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What is orographic lift?

Orographic lift occurs when an air mass is forced from a low elevation to a high elevation as it moves over rising terrain. (Usually mountains)

34
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What is Frontal lift?

• With a cold front, when advancing cold air undermines the warmer air ahead, forcing it upward

• With a warm front, when less dense warm air rises above retreating colder air.

In all cases, it is the warm air that is lifted.

35
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What is Convergence?

Convergence is usually associated with areas of low pressure (lows and troughs).

When air accumulates near the surface, excess air is forced to rise. This is called convergence.

36
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________ provides lift as long as the parcel of air is warmer than the surrounding air.

In unstable conditions, a lifted parcel of air will be warmer than the surrounding air at altitude.

Convection

37
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A small decrease of temperature with height is known as a ______ lapse rate.

Shallow

38
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A large decrease of temperature with height is known as a _____ lapse rate.

Steep

39
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If there is no variation in temperature with altitude, it is referred to as _______?

Isothermal

40
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If there is an increase in temperature with altitude, it is called an _______?

Inversion

41
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When to use a voice NOTAM?

Voice NOTAM are used to notify of unplanned situations that are dynamic in nature, of short duration, and confined to a localized area (A single aerodrome)

The duration of the Voice NOTAM is anticipated to be less than one hour.

42
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When are NOTAMs distributed by AFTN?

(Aeronautical fixed telecommunication network

It is important that NOTAM are distributed by AFTN to the maximum extent possible. Therefore, the following criteria must be met before a Voice NOTAM can be disseminated:

a. The duration of the Voice NOTAM is anticipated to be less than one hour.

b. An extension to the original Voice NOTAM’s duration must not exceed one hour.

c. The total duration (including any revisions) of the Voice NOTAM must not exceed two hours.

43
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If applicable, relay NOTAM information that may affect the arrival or departure of an aircraft such as:

• Changes in condition of aerodromes and associated facilities

• Changes in the serviceability of navigation aids

• Unmanned free balloons

• Volcanic activity

• The release of radioactive materials or toxic chemicals into the atmosphere within or near the MF area

44
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If the NOTAM information does not affect flight safety, you may omit providing

NOTAM information issued and disseminated on AFTN for:

• ____ hours or more for domestic traffic

• ____ hours or more for international traffic

12, 24

45
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What is the atmosphere composed of?

Nitrogen 78%

Oxygen 21%

Carbon dioxide, water vapour, and other rare gases

46
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What is the stability of the air?

Stability: The atmospheric resistance to vertical motion.

The greater the stability of the air, the more the atmosphere will resist vertical motion.

47
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Stable Air

The lifted parcel of air will return to its original position

In this case, the temperature in a parcel of air

could be lower to that of the surrounding air.

48
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Neutral Air

It will stay in the new position, after the lifting process has been removed.

In this case the temperature in a parcel of air could be equal to that of the surrounding air

49
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Unstable Air

It will continue moving in the direction of the disturbing force, after the lifting process has been removed.

In this case the temperature in a parcel of air could be higher to that of the surrounding air.

50
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Decode the following abbreviations:

  • STBY

  • EPU

  • MNT WRN

  • RVR

  • WADDS

  • MONCO

Standby

Emergency Power Unit

Maintenance Warning

Runway Visual Range

Wind and altimeter digital display system

ILS and RVR Monitor and Controller

51
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The objective of VCS is to ___________________ between ground traffic and aircraft on the manoeuvring area.

eliminate the potential for collision

52
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What is ground traffic?

All traffic, other than aircraft, on the manoeuvring and runway protected areas, such as vehicles, equipment and personnel.

53
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Hold Short: Instructions to hold at least ___ft from the edge of a runway while awaiting permission to cross or proceed onto a runway unless other holding positions are established by the aerodrome operator.

200

54
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What is the movement area?

The part of an aerodrome that is intended to be used for the surface movement of aircraft and that includes the manoeuvring area and aprons.

55
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What is the manoeuvring area?

The part of an aerodrome, other than an apron, that is intended to be used for the takeoff and landing of aircraft and for the movement of aircraft associated with takeoff and landing.

56
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What is the RPA (Runway Protected Area)?

The area around an active runway established to protect aircraft taking off and landing from taxiing aircraft and ground traffic.

57
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What is a taxiway (TWY)?

A defined path on a land aerodrome established for the taxiing of aircraft and intended to provide a link between one part of the aerodrome and another, including all of the following:

• The aircraft stand taxi lane

• The high speed taxiway

• The pathway for the air, hover, or ground taxiing of helicopters

58
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Decode the following vehicle abbreviations:

BW

GR

LO

MO

MV

PL

SP

ST

TK

TT

Blower

Grader

Loader

Mower

Maintenance Vehicle

Plow

Sweeper

Staff

Truck

Tractor

59
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Before releasing ground traffic onto the manoeuvring area or RPA, obtain the following information from it:

• Identification

• Present position, unless it is visually identified without any doubt

• Intentions

60
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You may omit the route when either of the following applies:

◦ There is only one route to the destination and no runway will be crossed.

◦ The route crosses only one runway.

61
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What words should be avoided when talking to vehicles?

  • Go Ahead

  • Clear

  • Cleared

62
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When an aircraft intends to depart and ground traffic will operate at the same time on the portion of the runway that will not be used for takeoff:

• Advise the pilot and ground traffic of the other’s presence.

• Instruct ground traffic to operate only on the part of the runway that is at least 60 meters (200 feet) behind the take-off point of the aircraft.

63
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If you cannot obtain an estimated time of landing for an inbound IFR aircraft from the ACC at least __ minutes prior to the last known estimate of the aircraft, instruct ground traffic to leave all runways and RPAs that may be used by the aircraft.

5

64
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ILS Critical area extensions

Vehicles cannot be within 150 metres (500ft) of the glide path or localizer when an aircraft is using the ILS. (Exception: tech vehicles)

65
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If ground traffic on the non-manoeuvring area requests to proceed into the RPA, you may do either of the following:

• Instruct the traffic to remain outside the area.

• Approve the request using clear and concise direction.

66
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What are the conditions for a ground vehicle crossing a Runway with an aircraft on final?

• Confirm that all ground traffic has been removed from the runway in use and RPA, and advise arriving aircraft of any aircraft traffic or obstacles on the runway or in the RPA.

• Maintain a visual watch of the ground traffic on the intended runway or within the RPA, and ensure that it remains within sight.

• Maintain a visual watch of the final approach leg or final approach segment of the inbound aircraft’s intended runway.

• Positively identify the position of the aircraft using any of the following:

◦ Visual scanning

◦ A position report from the pilot

◦ ATS surveillance

• Consider:

◦ Type and performance of ground and airborne traffic

◦ Runway conditions

◦ Other factors that may have an impact on the operation, for example, the crossing point, the weather or visibility, night operations, and the requested crossing activity

• Coordinate with the pilot on final.

67
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The ______ the air, the more water vapour it can hold before becoming saturated, compared to the same amount of air at a _____ temperature.

Warmer, Lower

68
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The relative humidity of air will _______ when there is an increase in temperature and increase when the temperature is ______, with no change to the amount of moisture in the air.

Decrease, Lowered

69
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When does condensation occur?

Condensation generally occurs in the atmosphere when warm air rises, cools and loses its capacity to hold water vapour. As a result, excess water vapour condenses to form cloud droplets.

70
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As the temperature increases, if the dew point remains constant, then the relative humidity ______. If the temperature decreases and the dew point remains the same then the relative humidity ______.

Decreases, Increases

71
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In the Northern Hemisphere, the Coriolis Effect always deflects the wind to the ____, finally forcing the wind to flow ______ to the isobars

Right, Parallel

72
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In the northern hemisphere, air circulates ______ around an area of high pressure and counter clockwise around an area of low pressure.

Clockwise

73
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In the northern hemisphere, what causes the surface wind to deflect to the right and flow parallel to the isobars?

The Coriolis effect

74
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What is friction force?

The force which results when the wind interacts with the earth’s surface.

This results in the Coriolis Effect being diminished.

75
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_______ aircraft can generally expect the wind to veer and increase and _____aircraft can expect the opposite to occur as the wind will back and decrease.

Departing, Landing

76
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With strong friction, the wind will move towards the ______________ with less friction the wind direction will be more in-line with the ________.

Pressure gradient force, Coriolis effect