Surgery EOR Dermatology (Smarty PANCE)

0.0(0)
Studied by 0 people
call kaiCall Kai
Locked
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
GameKnowt Play
Card Sorting

1/111

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Last updated 1:47 PM on 9/8/26
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced
Call with Kai
Chat

No analytics yet

Send a link to your students to track their progress

112 Terms

1
New cards

Burns

2
New cards

What are the three main classifications of burns?

Superficial (1st degree), partial-thickness (2nd degree), full-thickness (3rd degree)

3
New cards

What is the hallmark of a superficial burn?

Redness, pain, no blisters (e.g., sunburn)

4
New cards

How do partial-thickness burns present?

Red, painful, and blistered

5
New cards

What is the appearance of full-thickness burns?

White, charred, painless due to nerve damage

6
New cards

What is the Rule of Nines?

A method to estimate total body surface area (TBSA) affected by burns

7
New cards

What is the most critical initial treatment for severe burns?

Fluid resuscitation, typically using the Parkland formula (4 mL/kg per %TBSA)

8
New cards

What is the Parkland formula for burns?

4 mL/kg per %TBSA, half given in the first 8 hours, remainder in the next 16 hours

9
New cards

What topical antibiotic is commonly used in burn management?

Silver sulfadiazine and topical Bacitracin

10
New cards

What is the greatest risk for burn victims?

Infection

11
New cards

When should you consider transferring a burn patient to a burn center?

When TBSA >10%, involvement of face, hands, feet, genitals, or full-thickness burns

12
New cards

What lab abnormalities are common in burn patients?

Hypovolemia, hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis

13
New cards

How are inhalation injuries associated with burns treated?

Airway management with oxygen or intubation as necessary

14
New cards

What is the indication for escharotomy in burn patients?

To relieve pressure from circumferential burns and restore circulation

15
New cards

Cellulitis

16
New cards

What is the most common pathogen causing cellulitis?

Group A Streptococcus (Strep pyogenes)

17
New cards

What are the typical signs of cellulitis?

Redness, swelling, warmth, and tenderness of the skin

18
New cards

What is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis?

Oral antibiotics like cephalexin or dicloxacillin

19
New cards

What distinguishes cellulitis from erysipelas?

Erysipelas involves more superficial layers with sharply demarcated edges

20
New cards

What is the key risk factor for developing cellulitis?

Skin break or injury such as a cut or insect bite

21
New cards

What imaging is used if an abscess or deep infection is suspected with cellulitis?

Ultrasound or CT scan

22
New cards

How do you manage purulent cellulitis?

Empiric antibiotic therapy targeting MRSA (e.g., clindamycin, doxycycline)

23
New cards

What condition must be ruled out in rapidly progressing cellulitis?

Necrotizing fasciitis

24
New cards

What population is at high risk for recurrent cellulitis?

Patients with chronic lymphedema or venous insufficiency

25
New cards

What is the role of IV antibiotics in cellulitis?

For severe cases or failure of oral antibiotics

26
New cards

How can you prevent recurrent cellulitis in at-risk patients?

Skin hygiene, weight loss, compression therapy for edema

27
New cards

What complication can arise from untreated cellulitis?

Sepsis or deep tissue abscess

28
New cards

What is the duration of antibiotic therapy for cellulitis?

Typically 5-10 days, but longer for complicated cases

29
New cards

Dermatologic Neoplasms

30
New cards

What is the most common type of skin cancer?

Basal cell carcinoma

31
New cards

What is the most common risk factor for skin cancer?

UV light exposure

32
New cards

How does basal cell carcinoma typically present?

Pearly, raised lesion with telangiectasia, often on sun-exposed areas

33
New cards

What is the main distinguishing feature of squamous cell carcinoma?

Firm, scaly, red papules or plaques, often with ulceration

34
New cards

What is the ABCDE rule for melanoma?

Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter >6mm, Evolving

35
New cards

What is the preferred treatment for basal cell carcinoma?

Surgical excision or Mohs micrographic surgery

36
New cards

What is the best initial diagnostic step for suspected melanoma?

Excisional biopsy with narrow margins

37
New cards

What is the treatment for localized melanoma?

Wide excision with sentinel lymph node biopsy

38
New cards

What type of biopsy should be avoided in melanoma?

Shave biopsy due to inadequate depth

39
New cards

What is the role of immunotherapy in advanced melanoma?

Checkpoint inhibitors (e.g., nivolumab) improve survival in metastatic disease

40
New cards

What is the most common site of metastasis for melanoma?

Lymph nodes and distant skin sites

41
New cards

What is the primary treatment for squamous cell carcinoma?

Excision with clear margins

42
New cards

How is actinic keratosis related to squamous cell carcinoma?

Actinic keratosis is a precancerous lesion that can progress to squamous cell carcinoma

43
New cards

Epidermal Inclusion Cyst

44
New cards

What is an epidermal inclusion cyst?

A benign cyst containing keratinous material

45
New cards

How does an epidermal inclusion cyst present?

Mobile, firm, subcutaneous nodule often with a central punctum

46
New cards

What is the treatment for asymptomatic epidermal inclusion cysts?

Observation unless inflamed or symptomatic

47
New cards

What is the definitive treatment for an inflamed or infected cyst?

Incision and drainage followed by excision after inflammation resolves

48
New cards

What complication can arise from an untreated infected epidermal inclusion cyst?

Abscess formation

49
New cards

How do you differentiate an epidermal inclusion cyst from a lipoma?

Cysts have a central punctum and are usually firmer, while lipomas are soft and lobulated

50
New cards

What is the recurrence rate after excision of an epidermal inclusion cyst?

Low if completely excised, including the cyst wall

51
New cards

What causes an epidermal inclusion cyst?

Blockage of a hair follicle or skin trauma

52
New cards

What is the most common location for epidermal inclusion cysts?

Face, neck, and trunk

53
New cards

What is the histological finding in an epidermal inclusion cyst?

A cyst lined by squamous epithelium containing lamellated keratin

54
New cards

What is the appearance of a ruptured epidermal inclusion cyst?

Painful, erythematous nodule with cheesy white discharge

55
New cards

What is the best treatment for a ruptured cyst with secondary infection?

Incision, drainage, and oral antibiotics

56
New cards

How can epidermal inclusion cysts be prevented?

There is no reliable prevention method, but avoiding trauma may help reduce risk

57
New cards

Hidradenitis Suppurativa

58
New cards

What is hidradenitis suppurativa?

A chronic inflammatory condition of the apocrine glands leading to abscesses, scarring, and sinus tracts

59
New cards

What are common sites of hidradenitis suppurativa?

Axillae, groin, perineal, and inframammary areas

60
New cards

What is the initial treatment for mild hidradenitis suppurativa?

Topical clindamycin or oral antibiotics like tetracyclines

61
New cards

What is the primary risk factor for hidradenitis suppurativa?

Obesity, smoking, and family history

62
New cards

What is the Hurley staging system for?

It classifies the severity of hidradenitis suppurativa into three stages

63
New cards

What is the treatment for moderate to severe hidradenitis suppurativa?

Oral antibiotics, anti-TNF agents (e.g., infliximab), or surgical excision

64
New cards

What is the role of lifestyle changes in managing hidradenitis suppurativa?

Weight loss and smoking cessation can help reduce flares

65
New cards

What complication can arise from untreated hidradenitis suppurativa?

Formation of sinus tracts and severe scarring

66
New cards

What is the role of surgery in hidradenitis suppurativa?

Wide excision of involved skin in advanced cases

67
New cards

How do you differentiate hidradenitis suppurativa from other skin infections?

Chronicity, location, and the presence of sinus tracts and multiple abscesses

68
New cards

What is the most common presentation of hidradenitis suppurativa?

Painful nodules, abscesses, and draining sinus tracts in apocrine gland-bearing areas

69
New cards

What systemic treatments are considered for hidradenitis suppurativa?

Biologic agents like adalimumab in severe cases

70
New cards

What is the recurrence rate of hidradenitis suppurativa after surgery?

High, particularly in patients who continue smoking or do not lose weight

71
New cards

Lipoma

72
New cards

What is a lipoma?

A benign tumor of adipose tissue

73
New cards

How does a lipoma typically present?

Soft, mobile, and painless subcutaneous mass

74
New cards

What is the treatment for symptomatic lipoma?

Surgical excision

75
New cards

What imaging is used to confirm a lipoma?

Ultrasound or MRI if deep or atypical

76
New cards

How can you differentiate a lipoma from a sarcoma?

Lipomas are typically soft and painless, while sarcomas may be firmer and painful

77
New cards

What is the recurrence rate of a lipoma after excision?

Low if completely excised

78
New cards

What is the histological appearance of a lipoma?

Well-circumscribed mass of mature adipocytes

79
New cards

What is the most common location for lipomas?

Trunk, shoulders, and neck

80
New cards

What complication can arise from a rapidly growing lipoma?

Rarely, a liposarcoma, though most lipomas are benign

81
New cards

What is the usual size range of lipomas?

Typically less than 5 cm, but they can grow larger

82
New cards

What is the most common treatment for multiple lipomas?

Observation unless symptomatic or concerning features present

83
New cards

What are the concerning features of a lipoma that warrant further investigation?

Rapid growth, pain, or firmness

84
New cards

What is the genetic condition associated with multiple lipomas?

Familial multiple lipomatosis

85
New cards

Pressure Ulcer

86
New cards

What are the stages of pressure ulcers?

Stage 1: Non-blanchable erythema, Stage 2: Partial-thickness skin loss, Stage 3: Full-thickness skin loss, Stage 4: Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle

87
New cards

What is the most common site for pressure ulcers?

Bony prominences such as the sacrum, heels, and hips

88
New cards

What is the primary cause of pressure ulcers?

Prolonged pressure leading to ischemia of soft tissues

89
New cards

What is the best initial management for a stage 1 pressure ulcer?

Pressure relief and skin protection with barrier creams

90
New cards

What is the gold standard for diagnosing the extent of a pressure ulcer?

Clinical examination, but MRI can be used to assess deeper tissue involvement

91
New cards

How are stage 3 and 4 pressure ulcers treated?

Debridement, wound care, and possibly surgical intervention

92
New cards

What are the risk factors for developing pressure ulcers?

Immobility, poor nutrition, and incontinence

93
New cards

What role do nutritional supplements play in pressure ulcer prevention?

Protein and vitamin C supplementation can aid in healing

94
New cards

What complication can result from an untreated stage 4 pressure ulcer?

Osteomyelitis or sepsis

95
New cards

What is the key prevention strategy for pressure ulcers in bedridden patients?

Regular repositioning and use of pressure-relieving mattresses

96
New cards

What is the role of negative pressure wound therapy in pressure ulcers?

It can help promote healing in deeper ulcers

97
New cards

How is infection in a pressure ulcer diagnosed?

Wound culture and biopsy if osteomyelitis is suspected

98
New cards

What is the primary complication of pressure ulcers in elderly patients?

High risk of infection leading to morbidity and mortality

99
New cards

Dermatologic Procedures

100
New cards

What is the purpose of aspiration of a seroma or hematoma?

To drain accumulated fluid and prevent infection or dehiscence