6-1 The \_______ develops policies and procedures for airspace controls and for the coordination required among units with the operational area, establishes an ACS that is responsive to the needs of the JFC and coordinates and de-conflicts user requirements.
Airspace Control Authority
2
New cards
6-1 Who approves the Airspace Control Plan?
Joint Force Commander
3
New cards
6-1 What document includes detailed engagement procedures?
Area Air Defense Plan
4
New cards
6-1 An airspace reserved for specific activities in which the operations of one or more airspace users is restricted defines:
Restricted Operating Zone
5
New cards
6-1 What are the two methods for conducting airspace control?
Positive and Procedural Control
6
New cards
6-1 What permissive fire support coordination measure is a line beyond which conventional indirect surface joint fire support means may fire at any time within the boundaries of the establishing HQ without additional coordination?
Coordinated Fire Line (CFL)
7
New cards
6-1 What restrictive fire support coordination measure is an area where specific restrictions are imposed and in which joint fires, or the effects of joint fires, that exceed those restrictions will not be delivered without coordination with the established HQ?
Restrictive Fire Area (RFA)
8
New cards
6-1 What are the two exceptions for allowing joint fires inside a prohibited No Fire Area (NFA)?
Self-Defense and HHQ Approval
9
New cards
6-1 Where can crew members find the requirements to control within an ATC owned SUA?
Letter of Agreement
10
New cards
6-1 Which airspace control measure is designed to ensure aircrew safety and the effective use of indirect supporting surface joint fires by the de-confliction through time and space?
Airspace Coordination Area
11
New cards
6-1 Which Grid Reference System uses 30 by 30 minute areas that are subdivided by quadrants into 15 by 15 minute areas, and further subdivided by a keypad division into 5 by 5 minute areas? (GLOBAL)
GARS
12
New cards
6-2 What system on a KC-10 consists of wing tip drogue baskets, which adds flexibility to this platform? The system will allow a two-ship to refuel fat the same time, speeding things up.
WARPS
13
New cards
6-2 This term for fuel is what tankers could pass right now, then RTB. This doesn't even take into account the receivers the tanker is still fragged for.
Instantaneous/Transferable
14
New cards
6-2 What term is used to describe the amount of fuel that should be left over after a tanker finishes all their ATO assigned tasking and flies their entire scheduled duration?
Fragged +/-
15
New cards
6-2 Tanker \________ is dumping fuel from one tanker into another.
Force Extension/Consolidation
16
New cards
6-2 The \_________ is a helpful document to track your fuel plan. Based off the ATO, it contains all the same information in a different format.
Tanker Breakout
17
New cards
6-2 The \________ tanker operated by several services utilizes a fuel bladder in the cargo hold to transfer fuel and its offload is purely transferrable, not shared with what the aircraft burns.
KC/HC/MC-130
18
New cards
6-2 This USAF tanker holds over 300k lbs of fuel in 6 tanks to be transferred to a wide variety of aircraft/receivers:
KC-10
19
New cards
6-2 The \______ burns approximately 10k lbs of fuel an hour, similar to the E-3, which is logical due to them being derivatives of the same Boeing 707 platform.
KC-135
20
New cards
6-2 \_______ is a coalition tanker that can takeoff with 245k lbs of fuel if the conditions are optimal.
A330 MRTT
21
New cards
6-2 This taker has a fuel offload rate of 8k lbs per minute (boom) and has the operator located in the front of the aircraft using high definition, 2D/3D displays to conduct air refueling.
KC-46
22
New cards
6-2 This equipment can be loaded onto this tanker and enhance the link capability during an exercise or real-world operations acting as Link 16, SADL, JREAP BLOS node.
ROBE on the KC-135
23
New cards
6-3 List the two categories of targeting:
Deliberate and Dynamic
24
New cards
6-3 What are the six steps in the Joint Targeting Cycle process?
1. End state and commanders objective 2. Target development and prioritization 3. Capabilities analysis 4. Commander's decision and Force Assignment 5. Mission planning and Force Execution * 6. Targeting Assessment
25
New cards
6-3 In dynamic targeting prioritization, which target type, in most cases, requires immediate response?
Time sensitive target
26
New cards
6-3 What are the three things needed to complete a time sensitive target?
Positive ID, Deconfliction, and Collateral Damage Assessment
27
New cards
6-3 When amplification data (J6.0) is available, weapons updates the TE (J3.5) to reflect new information. What information is included?
Platform, Activity, Type, Nationality/Alliance
28
New cards
6-3 Once DT coordinates are verified, what J-Series message will be input by the AOC or the weapons section?
J3.5
29
New cards
6-3 When the DT package has the information to strike the target, the SLIC will pass the TOT to keep the AOC in the TST/DT execution loop utilizing what kind of media?
Tac Chat or Link 16 (J28.2)
30
New cards
6-3 DT tasking will be identified from what two sources?
AOC and Non traditional ISR
31
New cards
6-4 This type of request is submitted to the AOC in time to make the ATO cycle. These requests are planned and submitted by the Army through Army channels to the next higher echelon.
Preplanned (CAS)
32
New cards
6-4 Air support requests are filled through these mission types that have a block time during which aircraft sit alert, either on the ground (GCAS) or on airborne alert (XCAS)
On Call (CAS)
33
New cards
6-4 These requests are made too late to be part of the ATO cycle. These requests are passes through Air Force channels, over the JARN, to the ASOC.
Immediate (CAS)
34
New cards
6-4 The "9-Line Briefing" is the standard use with fixed and rotary wing aircraft and is used for all threat conditions but does not dictate the CAS aircraft's \____
Tactics
35
New cards
6-4 What type of terminal attack control is used when the JTAC desires control of individual attacks but assess that either visual acquisition of the attacking aircraft or target at weapons release is not possible or when attacking aircraft are not in a position to acquire the mark/target prior to weapons release/launch.
Type 2
36
New cards
6-4 This technology found on aircraft, munitions, laser range finders/designators and digital system capabilities can be leveraged in the CAS mission area.
GPS Equiped
37
New cards
6-4 There are a number of techniques that can be used by the weapons to stack CAS aircraft, including stacking by playtime, aircraft type, and \____
Weapons Loadout
38
New cards
6-4 What methods can attack aircraft utilize to verify target location?
Map plot, target designation display on digital map set, hud symbology, FLIR, or RADAR
39
New cards
6-5 This type of CAS required the TACP to submit a Joint Tactical Air Strike Request (JTASR) and grab aircraft from the ASOC, who tasks an on call mission. The ASOC holds the missions and sends them forward to an approved target, following full coordination at each echelon.
Pull CAS
40
New cards
6-5 This type of CAS is the concept of massing CAS assets to concentrate effects at the decisive point of the battle. This technique is used when the ASOC pushed CAS aircraft to a TACP, based on the weight-of-effort decision.
Push CAS
41
New cards
6-5 (T/F) The AOC is subordinate to the ASOC and is the primary control agency of the TACS for the execution of CAS.
False
42
New cards
6-5 The TACP can consist of what crew positions?
Air Liaison Officer (ALO), JTAC, FAC(A), Equipment, vehicles
43
New cards
6-5 The \_______ is an airborne extension of the ASOC or the DASC. Duties include coordinating CAS briefs and timing, providing CAS aircraft hand-off to terminal attack controllers, relaying threat updates and BDA, integrating CAS with other supporting arms, and coordinating fixed/rotary wing operations.
TAC(A)
44
New cards
6-5 What agency may have joint service and combines force representation in the Control Reporting Center (CRC) and is the primary interface for airspace control issues?
Airspace Management Liaison Section (AMLS)
45
New cards
6-6 The C2 organization, through which the JFACC plans, coordinates, allocates, controls, and tasks joint air operations.
Joint Air Operations Center (JAOC)
46
New cards
6-6 What control system is responsible to the Marine aviation combat element or ACE to provide centralized command and decentralized control to aviation assets in support of the MAGTF?
Marine Air Command and Control System (MACCS)
47
New cards
6-6 \_____ is the Navy's system to control and coordinate all air operations within an amphibious objective area or area of operations during amphibious operations.
Navy Tactical Air Control System (NTACS)
48
New cards
6-6 The \____ is a ground based mobile element of the TACS with long-range, wide-area ATI radar(s).
CRC
49
New cards
6-6 The purpose of DT is to give commanders \_____ for delivering effects against targets during a compressed timeline.
flexibility
50
New cards
6-Review The \______ defines and establishes airspace for military operations as deemed necessary by the appropriate military authority.
Airspace Control Order (ACO)
51
New cards
6-Review Who is responsible for defense of counter air operations?
Area Air Defense Commander
52
New cards
6-Review Forces attacking targets beyond a \____ must inform all affected commanders in sufficient time to allow necessary reaction to avoid fratricide.
Fire Support Coordination Line (FSCL)
53
New cards
6-Review A area into which any weapon system may fire without additional coordination with the establishing headquarters.
Free-fire area
54
New cards
6-Review A three dimensional area used to facilitate the integration of joint fires.
Kill box
55
New cards
6-Review This consists of air operations against hostile targets in close proximity to friendly forces.
Close Air Support (CAS)
56
New cards
6-Review \______ is under the operations control of the supporting Air Support Operations Center (ASOC) and are an airborne extension of the Air Force's Tactical Air Control Party (TACP)
Forward Air Controller - Airborne (FAC-A)
57
New cards
6-Review responsible for all fire support within his area of responsibility, the \_______ is the senior artilleryman at each echelon of command.
Fire Support Coordinator (FSCOORD)
58
New cards
6-Review An ATO tanker with no frag receivers or with extra fuel meant to fill any unplanned fall out is:
Airborne alert
59
New cards
6-Review A tanker that is waiting on the ground to takeoff in case of unplanned fall out
Ground alert
60
New cards
6-Review This tanker can be configured with the Multi-Point Refueling System (MPRS)
KC-135
61
New cards
6-Review which tankers can be configured with the Wing Aerial Refueling Pods (WARP)?
KC-10 and KC-46
62
New cards
6-Review This tactic is used by a KC-10 to refuel and A-10:
Tobogganing
63
New cards
6-Review this tanker can be field converted to a probe and drogue system using a special adapter unit. However, as opposed to a soft basket normally used with most drogue systems, this tanker uses a more rigid, steel basket when configured.
KC-135
64
New cards
One special subset of the KC 135 is the \_____ tanker. These are dedicated for special operations and usually will not be included on the ATO or tanker breakout.
Special Operations Air Refueling (SOAR)
65
New cards
6-Review how many feet of separation are required between tanker cells in the same anchor?
4K
66
New cards
6-Review \____ is the primary airspace control measure which reflects the coordination of air space for use by air support and indirect joint fires.
Airspace Coordination Area (ACA)
67
New cards
6-Review Which type of control relies on radars, other sensors, identification friend or foe/selective identification feature, digital data links, and other elements of the air defense system to positively identify, track, and direct air assets?
Positive
68
New cards
6-Review What zone involves the employment and integration of multiple air defense systems in order to simultaneously engage enemy targets in the operational area?
Joint Engagement
69
New cards
6-Review This type of control relies on ACM's such as comprehensive air defense identification procedures and ROE, low level transit routes, minimum risk routes, etc.
Procedural
70
New cards
6-Review This zone enables the JFC to respond immediately with fighter assets to an enemy air offensive regardless of its location.
Fighter engagement
71
New cards
6-Review The \______ is subordinate to the AOC and advises the AOC of the air support needed to satisfy army tactical air support requirements. This system is a vital component of TACS/AAGS
ASOC
72
New cards
6-Review \____ are located at each command echelon in the supported ground force, normally Battalion through core. They advise and assist the ground commander and request and coordinate preplanned an immediate tactical your support.
TACPs
73
New cards
6-Review During this step, the target is observed, and it's activity and movement or monitored.
Track
74
New cards
6-Review These are ATO targets that are planned for using on-call resources.
Dynamic
75
New cards
6-Review what type of targeting will be used against unplanned or unanticipated target of opportunity.
Dynamic Targeting
76
New cards
6-Review Targets that meet the criteria to achieve objectives but were not selected for action during the current joint targeting cycle.
Targets of opportunity
77
New cards
6-Review The COMAFFOR mechanism for commanding and controlling component air and space power. It consists of airborne and ground elements conducting tailored C2 of air and space operations including air defense and air space control.
Theater Air Control System (TACS)
78
New cards
What are the permissive airspace measures?
Coord Fire Line Fire Support Coord Line Free fire area kill box
79
New cards
What are the restrictive airspace measures?
Restrictive Fire Line No Fire Area Restrictive Fire Area Battlefield Coordination Line
80
New cards
(6-3) This type of target of opportunity is unknown or not expected to be present in the operational area. They are not included on a target list and an evaluation is needed to determine the engagement requirement and timing.
Unanticipated Target
81
New cards
During this step, possible targets are detected and classified for further prosection
Find
82
New cards
During this step, actions to determine the location of the potential target are taken.
Fix
83
New cards
During this step, the decision is made to engage the target in some manner to create desired effects and the means to do so are selected and coordinated.
Target
84
New cards
During this step, action is taken against the target.
Engage
85
New cards
During this step, the results of the target engagement are analyzed. BDA is critical in order to evaluate if an immediate re-attack may be required.
Assess
86
New cards
What parts of a 9-line MUST be read-back?
Lines 4 and 6 Restrictions
87
New cards
This type of terminal CAS control is used when the risk assessment requires the JTAC to visually acquire the attacking aircraft and the target under attack.
Type 1
88
New cards
This type of terminal attack control may be used when the tactical risk assessment indicated the CAS attacks impose a low risk of fratricide
Type 3
89
New cards
The \____ is the interface between Army and Air support agencies of other services in planning, processing, and coordinating air support requirements for air-to-ground operations and airspace control.
Army Air Ground System (AAGS)
90
New cards
The \____ establishes procedures for the ACS in the operational area.