POST MIDTERM MATERIALS (with quiz/rom from FULL SEMESTER)

Stability depends on:

• vision, vestibular system, proprioception, tactile sensation

• vision and vestibular system only

• proprioception and vestibular system

• proprioception, vision, vestibular system, planted limb, tactile sensation

vision, vestibular system, proprioception, tactile sensation

“parts of the body or mobility devices that come into

contact with the ground and the distance between those points” best describes what component of stability:

• Center of gravity (CoG)

• base of support (BoS)

base of support (BoS)

How can an occupational therapist modify an activity to better support the base of support and stability of a patient?

• increase more points of contact and decrease the distance between them

• decrease points of contact and increase the distance between them

• decrease points of contact and the distance between them

• increase more points of contact and the distance between them

increase more points of contact and the distance between them

“focal point at which gravity acts; where

the weight of an object is evenly distributed” describes which component of stability?

• Center of gravity (CoG)

• base of support (BoS)

Center of Gravity (CoG)

At what level is CoG at in anatomical position:

• 1st sacral level

• 2nd sacral level

• 3rd sacral level

2nd sacral level

As Your BoS widens, stability _____:

• as your BoS widens, stability decreases

• as your BoS widens, stability increases

• as your BoS widens, stability stays the same

as your BoS widens, stability increases

As your CoG lowers toward the ground, stability ______

• As your CoG lowers toward the ground stability increases

• As your CoG lowers toward the ground stability decreases

• As your CoG lowers toward the ground stability stays the same

As your CoG lowers toward the ground stability increases

“relative position of body

segments in response to demands of

activity” best describes:

• body stance

• posture

• anatomical adjustment

• placement

posture

Posture depends on:

• sensory output and motor input

• motor output and sensory input

motor output and sensory input

Which is an example of an ergonomic adjustment:

• Hip, knees, elbows at 90 with wrist neutral and monitor 18-24 inches away from face at eye level

• Hip, knees, elbows at 80 with wrist neutral and monitor 18-24 inches away from face at eye level

• Hip, knees, elbows at 90 with wrist supine and monitor 18-24 inches away from face at eye level

• Hip, knees, elbows at 90 with wrist neutral and monitor 20-24 inches away from face at eye level

Hip, knees, elbows at 90 with wrist neutral and monitor 18-24 inches away from face at eye level

How does the OTPF define functional mobility:

• moving from one position/place to

  another such as in bed mobility, w/c

  mobility, and transfers

• moving from one position/place to

  another like driving

moving from one position/place to

another such as in bed mobility, w/c

mobility, and transfers

Lack of bed mobility can contribute to:

• scar tissue build up

• bedside incontinence

• skin break down

skin break down

What are examples of OT interventions for bed mobility:

• use of logrolling, bridging, and a trapeze bar

• use or rolling pad, benching, and a trapeze bar

• use of logrolling, bridging, and a quad bar

use of logrolling, bridging, and a trapeze bar

What can promote wheelchair mobility:

• supportive seated surface to promote postural alignment only

• supportive seated surface to promote postural alignment and stability

• supportive seated surface to stability only

supportive seated surface to promote postural alignment and stability

Typical gait features:

• reciprocal pattern of lower extremity movement

• symmetrical pattern of lower extremity movement

• asymmetrical pattern of lower extremity movement

reciprocal pattern of lower extremity movement

Gait includes what types of muscle movement

• concentric and eccentric contractions

• eccentric and isometric contractions

• concentric, eccentric and isometric contractions

concentric, eccentric and isometric contractions

“Distance that one foot advances in relation to the

other” describes what part of Gait:

• step

• step width

• cadence

step

“width between heels” describes which part of gait:

• step

• step width

• cadence

step width

“steps per minute” describes what part of gait:

• step

• step width

• cadence

cadence

What are the components of the stance phase:

• heel strike, foot flat, mid stance, heel off

• heel strike, foot flat, mid stance, heel off, toes off

• heel tip, foot up, high stance, heel on, toe on

heel strike, foot flat, mid stance, heel off, toes off

What are the components of the swing phase:

• midswing, deceleration, pivot

• turn, step, lunge

• acceleration, midswing , deceleration

acceleration, midswing, deceleration

What is NOT true about mobility devices:

• they enhance safe functional mobility

• they are can be prescribed by OT/PT team or individually

• they can only be described by PT team

• they add points of contact to ground and increase BoS

they can only be described by PT team

A patient comes with minor weakness and balance concerns. The best mobility device for suggested use is:

• cane

• walker

• crutch

cane

A patient comes in with severe instability. Which mobility device is of best suggested use?

• cane

• walker

• crutch

walker

At what level should a walker be adjusted to:

• Tip of fingers

• wrist crease

• greater trochanter

wrist crease

How many inches from the armpit should a crutch be adjusted to:

• 1 inch

• 1.5 inch

• 2 inch

• 2.5 inch

2 inch

What determines the type of transfer used:

• patient functional level and diagnoses only

• patient functional level and medical status only

• patient functional level, diagnoses, medical status

• patient functional level, prescriptions, and medical status

patient functional level, diagnoses, medical status

Which type of transfer does the following description best describe, “requirement of upper body strength and consideration of friction”

• sliding board transfer

• squat pivot

• stand pivot

• dependent transfer

sliding board transfer

A dependent transfer includes:

• at least two people

• mechanical assist

• at least two people or mechanical assist

• at least 3 people or mechanical assist

at least two people or mechanical assist

Postural abnormality of leg length discrepancy is associated with which type of force:

• ascending force

• descending force

ascending force

Scoliosis is associated with what type of force:

• ascending force

• descending force

descending force

In a posterior tilt, what is the relationship of the positioning between the ASIS and PSIS:

• PSIS is higher than the ASIS

• ASIS is higher than the PSIS

ASIS is higher than the PSIS

Prolonged sitting can lead to:

• rounded back, Lordosis

• rounded back, Kyphosis

• inverted back, lordosis

• inverted back, kyphosis

rounded back, kyphosis

this image best implicates which postural abnormality?

• dowagers hump

• Sway back

• Kordosis

dowagers hump

this image best implicates which postural abnormality?

• dowagers hump

• Sway back

• Kordosis

sway back

In an anterior tilt, what is the relationship of the position of the PSIS to ASIS

• PSIS is higher than ASIS

• ASIS is higher than PSIS

• PSIS and ASIS are in alignment

PSIS is higher than ASIS

Anterior Tilts are associated with:

• kyphosis

• lordosis

• lumbar kyphosis

• lumbar lordosis

lumbar lordosis

What is implicated in Pelvic obliquity:

• kinematic chain, asymmetry, skin integrity

• open chain movements, asymmetry, skin integrity

• close chain movements, asymmetry, skin integrity

kinematic chain, asymmetry, skin integrity

A forward head posture is caused by:

• cervical vertebrae losing natural kyphosis

• cervical vertebrae losing natural lordosis

cervical vertebrae losing natural lordosis

“Weakness in gluteus medius causing a lateral lean to weak side” describes which abnormal gait pattern:

• trendelenberg

• circumduction

• foot drop

• hemiplegic

trendelenberg

“muscle weakness in legs causes

trunk and pelvis to compensate by

laterally swinging leg to the side

of the body to propel it forward” describes which abnormal gait pattern:

• trendelenberg

• circumduction

• foot drop

• hemiplegic

circumduction

“weakness or paralysis of ankle dorsiflexors causing the toes to come into contact with group before the heel, typical after stroke” describes which abnormal gait pattern?

• trendelenberg

• circumduction

• foot drop

• hemiplegic

foot drop

Hemiplegic Gaits can include which gait abnormalities:

• circumduction and foot drop

• circumflexion and foot drop

• circumduction and foot tilt

• circumflexion and foot tilt

circumduction and foot drop

“Hip adducted and knee locked in extension” describes which abnormal gait:

• hemiplegic

• parkinsonian

• trendelenberg

hemiplegic

Where is weight placed in a Parkinsonian Gait:

• tips of toes with flexion of trunk

• balls of heels with flexion of trunk

• balls of heels with extension of trunk

• tips of toes with extension of trunk

balls of heels with flexion of trunk

“Affected by impaired perception

and modulation of motor

movements looking like shuffling of feet” best describes which abnormal gait pattern?

• hemiplegic

• parkinsonian

• trendelenberg

parkinsonian

“Narrowing or crossing

over of the legs during

ambulation and is associated with CP and

other neurological

diagnoses” best describes which gait:

• ataxic gait

• parkinsonian gait

• scissor gait

scissor gait

Manny was in a car accident where his cerebellum was injured but everything else was okay. Even so, he is walking funny. Which abnormal gait pattern does this best describe?

• scissor gait

• ataxic gait

• TVA gait

ataxic gait

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to MMT

• Acute Fracture

• Hypermobility

• Post-Op orders limiting all ROM

• Subluxation
  

Hypermobility

Your patients elbow flexion and extension is measured at 15-120. Which of the following is true?

There is limitation at both flexion and extension

TRUE OR FALSE: the resistive hand in MMT is place proximal to the joint you are testing

FALSE

What are two environmental considerations for measuring ROM

time of day, temperature

What is the axis to perform ROM of GH horizontal abduction

Superior Aspect of humeral head

what is the most commonly dislocated joint

GHJ

Which of the following joints the MOST mobile joint

ball and socket

TRUE OF FALSE: then considering scapulohumeral rhythm, the scapula accounts for 60 out of the 180 degrees of motion in shoulder flexion

TRUE

What is the typical ROM for shoulder horizontal adduction

135

During MMT if a patient has a full ROM in an AG plane and breaks at MOD resistance, what is the score?

3+

When performing MMT of forearm supination, the patient performs full ROM against gravity.  What do you do next?

apply resistance

what is the norm for forearm pronation

80

the humeradial joint is classified as which of the following

modified hinge

where is the resistance applied for elbow flexion

distal forearm

While performing MMT where do you apply resistance during wrist extension?

• proximal metacarpals

• dorsal metacarpals

• medial metacarpals

• none of the above

dorsal metacarpals

TRU EOR FALSE: the hamate is the axis of movement for radial deviation

FALSE

When performing MMT your patient is only able to complete ½ the range of motion for wrist extension while her forearm is supported on the table in neutral (thumb up).  What is her MMT score?

2-

Where do you stabilize when performing MMT of wrist flexion

Distal forearm

What is the AROM of wrist extension

70

what is the norm ROM of PIP flexion

0-100

where do you apply resistance when muscle testing the flexor digitorum profundus

distal phalanx

where is the stabilizing hand during MMT for MCP extension

distal metacarpals

when performing MMT of init MCP flexion your patient moves 90 degrees against gravity, what do you do next

apply resistance

When performing MMT and a patient has no active joint movement but there is a palpable muscle contraction, what is the score?

1 (trace)

When performing MMT of thumb palmar abduction your patient moves 10 degrees against gravity.  Next you perform PROM and she has full PROM.  In a gravity eliminated plane she has 10 degrees of motion, what do you do next?

Measure precise palmar abduction ROM with a goniometer

Assign a grade of 2

Apply resistance 

Assign a grade of 2-

Assign a grade of 2-

When measuring composite flexion of the index digit that means that flexion is occurring at what joint (s)? 

DIP, PIP, MCP

What is/are the prime mover(s) for thumb IP flexion?

FPB

EPL

EPB

FPL

FPL

Anterior curves of the spine are referred to a kyphosis. 

false

Prolapse of the uterus into the vagina is called:

Vaginal Vault Prolapse

Cytocoele

Uterine Prolapse

Enterocoele

Uterine Prolapse

____________- blocks transmission of neurological signals from brain to body

Spinal Cord Injury

List the number (e.g. 1, 2, 3) of vertebrae in each portion of the spine: 

Cervical

Thoracic

Lumbar

Sacral

Coccygeal

7, 12, 5, 5, 4

The ilium, ischium, and pubis come together to form the ____________

acetabulum

The Stationary arm for hip internal rotation is ______ to the floor:

• perpendicular

• parallel

• no relationship

perpendicular

Which are the prime movers for hip abduction? (Write all that apply)

• gluteus minimus

• obturator external

• gluteus medius

• obturator internal

• gluteus maximus

• TFL

• IT band

gluteus minimus, gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, TFL

The Goni Axis for hip internal rotation is the ______:

• femur

• patella

• ASIS

patella

Typical ROM for Hip Adduction:

• 20

• 25

• 30

• 35

30

What is the goni axis for hip adduction?

• PSIS

• femur

• tibia

• ASIS

ASIS

Typical range of motion for eversion is?

• 10

• 15

• 20

• 25

15

Interventions for plantar fasciitis include?

stretching, modalities, rest, orthotics

Your patient completed full ROM of hip flexion. You apply resistance against and the patient breaks at moderate assistance. What grade do you assign?

• 3

• 3+

• 2-

• 2

3+

What is the typical ROM for plantar flexion?

• 40

• 45

• 50

• 55

50

Your patient has full PROM of hip internal rotation but when placed in supine with hip and knee extended, she can only go 0-20 degrees.  What is her MMT grade?

• 3-

• 3

• 2-

• 2+

• 2

2-

What are the three phases of healing in correct order?

• Fibroblastic, Inflammatory, Maturation

• Inflammatory, Maturation, Fibroblastic

• Inflammatory, Fibroblastic, Maturation

• Maturation, Inflammatory, Fibroblastic

Inflammatory, Fibroblastic, Maturation

Which basic concept of therapeutic exercise involves stressing the body past its current state to create change?

• Specificity

• Individuality

• Intensity

• Overload

overload

During which phase of healing does the development of scar tissue primarily occur?

• Inflammatory Phase

• Fibroblastic Phase

• Maturation Phase

• Rehabilitation Phase 

fibroblastic phase

Which component of a therapeutic exercise plan focuses on multi-joint coordination and movement patterns?

• ROM

• Strength and Endurance

• Swelling and Pain

• Neuromuscular Control and Balance

neuromuscular control and balance

Which of the following is NOT one of the basic concepts of therapeutic exercise mentioned in the presentation?

• Specificity

• Intensity

• Periodization

• Safety

periodization

What is the purpose of the spinal column?

• supply rotational axis for functional movement

• provide stability for functional movement

• baseline function for only IADLs

provide stability for functional movement

Lordosis

anterior curve of spinal column

Kyphosis

Posterior Cruves of spinal column

What is the name of the joint that:

● Interface between skull and spinal column

(C1 - Atlas)

● Provides initial movements for flexion and

extension

● “Yes” Joint

Atlanto-occipital Joint, Atlantoaxial joint, temporomandibular

Atlantoaxial Joint

What is the name of the joint that:

• Supplies much of the movement for Rotation

• Joint between C1 (atlas) and C2 (Axis)

• “No” Joint

Atlanto-occipital Joint, Atlantoaxial joint, temporomandibular

Atlantoaxial joint