Pharmacology Unit 1

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Last updated 12:36 AM on 9/8/26
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117 Terms

1
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What is pharmacology?

The study of drugs and their effects on living organisms.

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What is pharmacodynamics (PD)?

What the drug does to the body—how drugs interact with targets to produce effects.

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What is pharmacokinetics (PK)?

What the body does to the drug—how the drug moves through the body.

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What does ADME stand for?

Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion.

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What is the difference between a therapeutic drug and a toxic drug?

The effect depends largely on the dose; too much of a drug can produce toxic effects.

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What are the two broad ways drugs can act?

Through specific targets or through nonspecific actions.

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Give an example of a nonspecific drug action.

Mannitol increases osmotic pressure and draws water into the urine.

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What are major specific drug targets?

DNA, microbial organelles, receptors, enzymes, and other target macromolecules.

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How do alkylating agents affect DNA?

They add alkyl groups to DNA, which can interfere with DNA replication and function.

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What is a receptor?

A molecule that recognizes and binds a specific ligand/drug and produces or influences a cellular response.

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What is a ligand?

A molecule that binds to a receptor.

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What is an agonist?

A drug that binds to a receptor and activates it to produce a response.

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What is an antagonist?

A drug that binds to a receptor but blocks activation and prevents/reduces a response.

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What are the four major receptor types?

Ionotropic receptors, GPCRs, enzyme-linked receptors, and nuclear receptors.

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What is an ionotropic receptor?

A ligand-gated ion channel that opens or closes when a ligand binds.

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What happens when an ionotropic receptor opens?

Ions move across the membrane, rapidly changing the cell's electrical state.

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What is an example of an ionotropic receptor?

The nicotinic acetylcholine (ACh) receptor.

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What does GPCR stand for?

G-protein-coupled receptor.

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How do GPCRs work in general?

A ligand binds the receptor → activates a G protein → the G protein affects an effector → intracellular signaling molecules produce a response.

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What is the main idea behind Gs signaling?

Gs stimulates adenylyl cyclase → increases cAMP → activates PKA.

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What is the main idea behind Gi signaling?

Gi inhibits adenylyl cyclase → decreases cAMP.

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What is the main idea behind Gq signaling?

Gq activates PLC → produces IP₃ and DAG → increases intracellular Ca²⁺ and activates PKC.

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What is cAMP?

A second messenger that helps transmit and amplify signals inside the cell.

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Why can GPCR signaling produce large cellular effects?

Signal amplification occurs because one receptor activation can activate multiple downstream molecules.

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What are enzyme-linked receptors?

Receptors linked to or containing enzymatic activity that can trigger intracellular signaling pathways.

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What are nuclear receptors?

Intracellular receptors that bind ligands and regulate gene transcription.

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Why are nuclear receptor effects generally slower?

They involve changes in gene expression and protein production.

28
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How can drugs affect enzymes?

They can inhibit or alter enzyme activity, changing the production or breakdown of substances.

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What enzyme is inhibited by aspirin and many NSAIDs?

Cyclooxygenase (COX).

30
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What is the general effect of COX inhibition?

It decreases production of prostaglandins, contributing to analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects.

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What is specificity?

The tendency of a drug to interact with a particular target rather than many different targets.

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What is affinity?

How strongly a drug binds to its receptor/target.

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What is efficacy?

The ability of a drug, once bound, to produce a biological response.

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What is potency?

The amount of drug needed to produce a given effect.

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What does EC50 represent?

The concentration of drug that produces 50% of the maximal effect in a graded dose-response curve.

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If Drug A has a lower EC50 than Drug B, which is more potent?

Drug A is more potent because it produces the effect at a lower concentration.

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What is a full agonist?

An agonist capable of producing the maximum response of the system.

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What is a partial agonist?

An agonist that activates the receptor but produces a lower maximum response than a full agonist.

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Can a partial agonist act as an antagonist?

Yes. In the presence of a full agonist, a partial agonist can compete for receptors and reduce the overall response.

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What is tolerance?

A decreased response to a drug after repeated exposure, often requiring a higher dose to produce the same effect.

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What is sensitization?

An increased response to a drug after repeated exposure.

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What is competitive antagonism?

The antagonist competes with the agonist for the same receptor site. Increasing agonist concentration can overcome the antagonism.

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What is noncompetitive antagonism?

The antagonist prevents the agonist from producing its full effect, and increasing agonist concentration cannot fully overcome the antagonism.

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What is the difference between a graded and quantal dose-response curve?

Graded: measures the magnitude of response in an individual/system.
Quantal: measures whether a defined response occurs across a population.

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What are ED50, TD50, LD50, and therapeutic index (TI)?

ED50: dose producing the desired effect in 50% of the population
TD50: dose producing toxicity in 50%
LD50: dose causing death in 50%
TI: TD50 / ED50 A larger TI generally indicates a wider safety margin.

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What is pharmacokinetics (PK)?

What the body does to a drug → ADME.

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What is absorption?

Drug movement from administration site → bloodstream.

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What is distribution?

Drug movement from blood → tissues.

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What is metabolism?

Chemical modification of drugs, mainly in the liver.

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What is excretion?

Removal of drugs, mainly by the kidneys.

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Which route has the fastest onset and 100% bioavailability?

IV.

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Rank these routes from fastest → slowest.

IV → IM → SC → oral.

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What is bioavailability (F)?

Fraction of a dose reaching systemic circulation unchanged.

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What is first-pass metabolism?

Oral drug is metabolized in the gut/liver before reaching circulation, reducing bioavailability.

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What type of drug crosses membranes most easily?

Non-ionized + lipid-soluble.

56
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What is passive diffusion?

Drug moves high → low concentration without energy.

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What is pKa?

pH where 50% of the drug is ionized and 50% is non-ionized.

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What is ion trapping?

Drug becomes ionized on one side of a membrane and gets trapped there.

59
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What is active vs. facilitated diffusion?

Facilitated: transporter, no ATP, down gradient.
Active: transporter + energy, can move against gradient.

60
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Which form of a drug is pharmacologically active?

Unbound/free drug.

61
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What determines how quickly a drug reaches a tissue?

Blood flow.

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What does the blood-brain barrier do?

Restricts many drugs from entering the CNS.

63
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What is redistribution?

Drug moves from one tissue → another tissue after initial distribution.

64
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Give an example of redistribution.

Thiopental: brain initially → then redistributes to other tissues.

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Where does most drug metabolism occur?

Liver

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What enzyme system is important in drug metabolism?

Cytochrome P450 (CYP450).

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What happens during Phase I metabolism?

Oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis.

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What happens during Phase II metabolism?

Conjugation, usually making drugs more water-soluble.

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What factors affect drug metabolism?

Genetics, age, disease, diet, and other drugs.

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What is pharmacogenomics?

How genetic differences affect drug response/metabolism.

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What is the major organ for drug excretion?

Kidneys

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What are the 3 renal processes involved in drug elimination?

Filtration → reabsorption → secretion.

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What happens during glomerular filtration?

Unbound drug moves from blood → renal filtrate.

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Which drug form is more likely to be reabsorbed?

Non-ionized + lipid-soluble.

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What is tubular secretion?

Active transport of drug from blood → renal tubule.

76
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How does urine pH affect drug excretion?

Changes drug ionization, affecting reabsorption and excretion.

77
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What is enterohepatic recirculation?

Drug → bile → intestine → reabsorbed → bloodstream.

78
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What is volume of distribution (Vd)?

Relates the amount of drug in the body to plasma concentration.

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What is the Vd formula?

Vd = Amount of drug in body ÷ Plasma concentration.

80
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What does a large Vd indicate?

Drug has moved extensively into tissues.

81
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First-order vs. zero-order elimination?

First-order: constant percentage eliminated.
Zero-order: constant amount eliminated.

82
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What is half-life?

Time required for drug concentration to decrease by 50%.

83
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How long does it take to reach steady state?

About 5 half-lives.

84
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What happens when half-life increases?

Longer time to reach steady state and longer elimination.

85
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What is a loading dose?

Larger initial dose used to rapidly reach desired drug concentration.

86
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Loading-dose relationship?

Dose = Vd × desired plasma concentration.

87
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What are the two divisions of the ANS?

Sympathetic + Parasympathetic.

88
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What neurotransmitter do ALL autonomic preganglionic neurons release?

ACh.

89
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What do most sympathetic postganglionic neurons release?

Norepinephrine (NE).

90
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What do parasympathetic postganglionic neurons release?

ACh.

91
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What are the major adrenergic receptors?

α1, α2, β1, β2, β3.

92
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What does α1 activation do?

Vasoconstriction + pupil dilation.

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What does β1 activation do?

↑ Heart rate + ↑ contractility + ↑ conduction.

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What does β2 activation do?

Bronchodilation

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What are the key receptor associations to memorize?

α1 = vessels/eyes
β1 = heart
β2 = lungs
β3 = adipose/metabolism

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What is the rate-limiting enzyme in catecholamine synthesis?

Tyrosine hydroxylase.

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What enzymes break down catecholamines?

MAO + COMT.

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What is the major urinary catecholamine metabolite?

VMA.

99
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What are dopamine's dose-dependent effects?

Low → dopamine receptors
Moderate → β1/cardiac
High → α1/vasoconstriction

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What is an adrenergic agonist?

A drug that activates adrenergic receptors.