Medical Laboratory Science Review - Blood Bank

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Flashcards for Medical Laboratory Science topics in Blood Bank focusing on essential concepts, facts, and procedures.

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46 Terms

1
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What type of testing is routinely performed in the blood bank to determine a patient's blood group?

Phenotyping, which is the physical expression of a genotype.

2
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What does a stronger reaction of an antibody with homozygous cells than with heterozygous cells indicate?

Dosage.

3
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Why does dosage effect occur with antibodies like anti-K?

Because antibodies react stronger with homozygous (e.g., KK) cells than with heterozygous (e.g., Kk) cells.

4
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What factors may account for the absence of certain blood group antigens in individuals?

Gender and race.

5
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What is the expected DNA complement of gametes produced during meiosis?

1N.

6
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What stage is a cell in when it is not actively dividing?

Interphase.

7
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What describes the inheritance of most blood group antigens?

Codominant.

8
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If a patient has AO and the partner has BO, what blood type can they not have?

AB.

9
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What type of exclusion occurs if the alleged father is AB and the child is O?

Indirect or secondary exclusion.

10
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If two genes Y and Z have frequencies of 0.4 and 0.5 respectively but are found together 32% of the time, what is this an example of?

Linkage disequilibrium.

11
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In the Hardy-Weinberg formula, what does p2 represent?

The homozygous population of one allele.

12
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What type of inheritance is characterized by all daughters expressing the trait if a father carries it on his X chromosome?

X-linked dominant.

13
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What is the reason IgM antibodies can agglutinate red blood cells?

IgM antibodies are larger and can bind more antigens.

14
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What enhancement medium decreases the zeta potential to improve antigen-antibody interaction?

LISS (Low Ionic Strength Saline).

15
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What type of response is an anamnestic response?

A secondary immune response in which memory lymphocytes rapidly respond to a foreign antigen.

16
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What antibodies are contained in the rabbit polyspecific antihuman globulin reagent?

Anti-IgG and anti-C3d.

17
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How can you distinguish between A1 and A2 blood groups?

An A2 person may form anti-A1 while an A1 person will not.

18
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Why is the Bombay phenotype incompatible with type O blood cells?

Bombay individuals do not express H antigen, which type O blood contains.

19
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What antibodies are formed by a Bombay individual?

Anti-A, anti-B, and anti-H.

20
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What is the expected action if all forward and reverse ABO results are positive?

Wash the cells with warm saline.

21
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What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results are negative?

Perform additional testing such as typing with anti-A1 lectin and anti-A,B.

22
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What immunodominant sugar reacts with Dolichos biflorus lectin?

N-acetyl-D-galactosamine.

23
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What could a 4+ reaction with anti-A and negative reaction with A1 cells indicate?

The patient may have acquired B antigen.

24
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What blood group has the least amount of H antigen?

A1B.

25
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What should be done for a patient with a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT)?

Perform weak D testing on the cells is not necessary.

26
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Which genotype would an individual with anti-C likely possess?

rr (dce/dce).

27
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What should be done if a positive DAT indicates antibody coating the patient cells?

Perform an elution followed by a cell panel on the eluate.

28
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What indicates the need for washing cells supports the presence of a cold agglutinin?

Clear RBCs after washing should yield negative reactions.

29
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What is the effect of anti-M presence on crossmatching?

It may cause incompatibility reactions.

30
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What is the best way to remove a clinically insignificant antibody?

Adsorption techniques.

31
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What is the main concern with a titer of anti-M reacting strongly across all phases?

It may hinder the detection of clinically significant antibodies.

32
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How can the specificity of an unknown antibody suspected to be anti-Jka be verified?

Use a select panel of homozygous cells.

33
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What course of action should follow the detection of complement-dependent antibodies?

Perform a salicylate replacement on the cells.

34
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What would not contribute to revealing a clinically significant antibody if a high titer antibody is present?

Lowering the pH.

35
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How can a blood product with a clotted sample be handled?

Do not issue the unit.

36
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What definition applies to granulocyte concentrates?

Crossmatching with recipient serum is required.

37
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Why would a leukoreduced red cell unit indicate compatible blood?

They have clinical aqueous for use.

38
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What is the expected outcome for an HLA type platelets transfusion?

PT screens negative.

39
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What method is effective in neutralizing anti-Lea?

Use of saliva from an Le(a-b-) individual.

40
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How do antibodies against low-incidence antigens affect transfusion?

May require identifying rare blood groups.

41
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What is typically expected after transfusion in patients receiving blood products?

Monitoring for febrile reactions.

42
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What are antibodies involved in hemolytic disease of newborn?

Maternal antibodies against fetal RBC antigens.

43
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What is the most common cause of false positive in crossmatch testing?

Technical errors.

44
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What factors influence the probability of successfully using parts from blood transfusions?

Timing, testing techniques, and unit storage.

45
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How should discrepancies in blood bank results be handled?

Further verification tests should be conducted.

46
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What action is necessary when a red blood cell unit is found leaking?

Discard the unit.