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what is a pure monopoly?
a single seller with complete control over a market
which of the following is NOT a common barrier to entry in monopolistic markets?
perfect market information
what is simultaneous consumption in economic terms?
when multiple people can use a product at the same time without diminishing its value.
network effects occur when?
a product’s value increases as more people use it.
what is X-inefficiency?
the excess costs due to lack of competitive pressure.
rent-seeking behavior refers to
attempts to increase wealth without creating new value
which type of price discrimination involves charging different prices to different customer groups?
third-degree price discrimination
the socially optimal price in a monopoly market is where
price equals marginal cost
what characterizes a fair-return price?
price that covers costs plus reasonable return
which factor most likely indicates the presence of network effects
increasing value with user base growth
a natural monopoly typically exists when
government grants exclusive rights
price discrimination is most effective when
different groups have different price elasticities
what is the primary criticism of monopolistic rent-seeking?
it wastes resources on unproductive activities
the deadweight loss in a monopoly results from
output restriction and higher prices
which is NOT a typical characteristic of a pure monopoly?
multiple close substitutes
network effects are most commonly seen in
social media platforms
what typically happens to consumer surplus in a monopoly
it decreases compared to perfect competition
the fair return price regulation aims to
ensure reasonable but not excessive profits
which best describes simultaneous consumption of digital goods
multiple users can consume without depletion
x-inefficiency is most likely to occur when
market pressure is minimal
what is the main characteristic that distinguishes monopolistic competition from perfect competition
product differentiation
in a monopolistically competitive market, excess capacity refers to
the ability to produce more than the market demands
the four firm concentration ratio measures
the market share of the largest four firms in the industry
which index provides a more comprehensive measure of market concentration than the four firm concentration ratio
the herfindahl index
in an oligopolistic market mutual interdependence means
each firms decisions affect and are affected by other firms’ actions
a kinked demand curve in oligopoly explains why
prices tend to be rigid
product differentiation in monopolistic competition can include all of the following EXCEPT
identical products
what is synergy in the context of oligopolistic markets
when combined firms create greater value than separate firms
game theory in oligopolistic markets helps explain
strategic decision making considering competitors reactions
a price war in an oligopolistic market typically results in
reduced profits for participating firms
what is the primary characteristic of a homogenous oligopoly
products are essentially identical
nonprime competition includes which of the following
advertising and product features
in oligopolistic markets, price leadership occurs when
one firm’s price changes are followed by others
import competition affects domestic oligopolies by
reducing market power of domestic firms
a cartel is characterized by
agreement among firms to control price or output
interindustry competition refers to
competition between similar products in different industries
the primary goal of product differentiation is to
create unique value in consumers’ minds
strategic behavior in oligopolistic markets involves
considering competitors’ potential responses
the primary difference between differentiated and homogenous oligopoly is
the level of product differentiation
which factor most likely indicates strong oligopolistic competition
high market concentration among few firms
what is the primary goal of monetary policy implemented by the federal reserve
controlling inflation and price stability
which of the following is a tool of monetary policy
open market operations
the federal funds rate is
the rate at which banks lend to each other overnight
fiscal policy is primarily controlled by
congress and the president
what typically happens to interest rates when the fed implements contractionary monetary policy
interest rates increase
which of the following is an example of expansionary fiscal policy
increasing government spending
the term “quantitative easing” refers to
large scale asset purchases by the Fed
what is the main purpose of reserve requirements
to ensure banks maintain adequate liquidation
during a recession, which combination of policies might the government implement
lower interest rates and increased spending
the discount rate is
the rate at which the fed lends to commercial banks
what is the purpose of the federal reserve’s dual mandate
to maintain price stability and maximum employment
which of the following is NOT a tool of fiscal policy
reserve requirements
when the fed engages in open market operations by selling securities, what happens to the money supply
it decreases
what is the primary difference between monetary and fiscal policy
controlling authority
during period of high inflation, the fed is likely to
raise interest rates
the term “crowding out” refers to
private investment reduced by government borrowing
which policy tool has typically the quickest impact on the economy
changes in interest rates
what is the main criticism of discretionary fiscal policy
implementation lag
the federal reserve’s independence means
it makes monetary policy decisions without political pressures
which statement about monetary policy is correct
it works primarily through interest rates and money supply