Pharmacology Midterm

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Last updated 9:46 PM on 9/19/26
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175 Terms

1
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What are two plant and animal sources used to derive therapeutic drugs?

Heparin (derived from animal tissues) and cardiac glycosides (derived from the foxglove plant).

2
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What is the chemical name?

Precise molecular structure

3
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What is the generic name?

Generic Name

4
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What is the trade name?

Brand name registered by a manufacturer (e.g., Advil, Motrin)

5
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What is generic equivalence, and why are look-alike drug names dangerous?

the active generic ingredient enters blood at the exact same rate as the brand name. Similar drug names (e.g., Celebrex vs. Celexa) can cause fatal medication errors.

6
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What are the main duties of the FDA?

Approves drug marketing, sets manufacturing standards, and regulates prescription labeling/ads.

7
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What are the main duties of the DEA?

Regulates manufacturing and distribution of controlled substances substances with the possibility of abuse

8
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What are the key rules for Controlled Substance Schedules I to V?

Schedule I: Highest abuse potential; no medical use (e.g., heroin, LSD).

Schedule II: High abuse; requires written/typed prescription in ink, no refills, cannot be phoned in.

Schedule III & IV: Moderate/low abuse; max 5 refills in 6 months.

Schedule V: Lowest abuse potential (e.g., cough syrups with codeine).


9
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What is a Black Box Warning, and what was the 2011 acetaminophen regulation?

FDA warning drawing explicit attention to severe drug safety hazards. In 2011, prescription combination tablets were capped at a maximum of 325 mg of acetaminophen per tablet.

10
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What is the difference between labeled and off-label drug use?

Labeled use is FDA-approved for a specific condition. Off-label use is prescribing a drug for an unapproved indication

11
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What are the 3 main sections of a prescription?

Heading: Prescriber/patient information and date.

Body: Rx symbol, drug name, dosage, quantity (Disp), and directions (Sig).

Closing: Prescriber signature, DEA number, refill count, and substitution directions.

12
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What do the prescription abbreviations ac mean?

before meals

13
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What do the prescription abbreviations pc mean?

after meals

14
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What do the prescription abbreviations bid mean?

2 times a day

15
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What do the prescription abbreviations tid mean?

3 times a day

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Qid

4 times a day

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Po

by mouth

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prn

as needed

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sig

write on label / instructions

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stat

immediately

21
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How do drug potency and efficacy differ?

Potency is related to dose (smaller dose needed = higher potency). Efficacy is the maximum overall effect regardless of dose. They are completely unrelated.

22
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What is the difference between an agonist and an antagonist?

An agonist binds receptors to produce a therapeutic response. An antagonist binds receptors to block or counteract an agonist.

23
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Define Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, Pharmacogenetics, and Toxicology

Pharmacokinetics: Study of drug movement through the body.

Pharmacodynamics: Action of a drug on a target organ/cell.

Pharmacogenetics: How genetics affect individual drug response.

Toxicology: Study of poisons and adverse drug effects.

24
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What steps form the LADME acronym?

Liberation, Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion

25
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How do tissue pH and pKa affect local anesthetic onset?

Higher pH increases the nonionized form, causing faster onset.

26
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What is the first-pass effect?

Breakdown of an oral drug in the liver before it reaches circulation

27
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What is the difference between enteral and parenteral administration?

Enteral uses the GI tract; parenteral bypasses the GI tract

28
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What are the main organs for drug metabolism and excretion?

Liver for metabolism; kidneys for excretion

29
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What is bioavailability, and how does IV compare to oral?

Percentage of unchanged drug reaching circulation; IV is 100%

30
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What is the difference between a loading dose and maintenance dose?

Loading dose is a large initial dose; maintenance dose maintains drug levels

31
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What distinguishes a therapeutic effect from an adverse reaction?

Therapeutic effects are intended; adverse reactions are unwanted and harmful

32
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What are LD50 and ED50?

LD50 kills 50%; ED50 produces the desired effect in 50%

33
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What interaction occurs with these drug combinations?

Alprazolam + diphenhydramine = additive; penicillin + azithromycin = antagonistic

34
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What steps help prevent prescription errors?

Write exact instructions, spell out quantities, include patient age, and state refills/NR

35
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The term for the ability of a drug to produce a therapeutic effect regardless of the dose is the

efficency

36
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A drug administered sublingually goes directly to the

Heart

37
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What components make up the Central Nervous System (CNS)?

Brain and spinal cord

38
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The Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) controls which of the following involuntary functions?

Blood pressure, pulse, respiration, and salivary gland excretion

39
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What is the term for the junction between two communicating neurons?

Synapse

40
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If a cluster of neuronal connections between two nerve cells lies outside the Central Nervous System, it is called a

Ganglion

41
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A neuron that conducts impulses before the synaptic cleft is referred to as the

Preganglionic neuron

42
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Which primary neurotransmitter is released from all preganglionic neurons in both the Sympathetic (SANS) and Parasympathetic (PANS) divisions?

Acetylcholine

43
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Which neurotransmitter is released by most postganglionic neurons in the Sympathetic Autonomic Nervous System (SANS)?

Norepinephrine

44
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Which sympathetic organ or gland is innervated directly by preganglionic neurons that release acetylcholine, without any postganglionic fibers?

Adrenal medulla

45
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Cell bodies of preganglionic neurons in the Parasympathetic Autonomic Nervous System originate from which cranial nerves?

CN III, VII, IX, and X

46
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What is the primary physiological state associated with activation of the Parasympathetic Autonomic Nervous System?

Resting and digesting response

47
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Parasympathetic receptors on target tissues are categorized into which two types?

Muscarinic and Nicotinic

48
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The mnemonic "SLUD" represents parasympathetic stimulation. What does the letter "U" stand for?

Urination

49
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Adrenergic receptors that predominantly stimulate heart muscle rate and contraction strength are classified as:

Beta-1 receptors

50
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Activation of Beta-2 adrenergic receptors produces which primary physiological response?

Bronchodilation in the lungs

51
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What is the medical term for pupil dilation caused by sympathetic activation or adrenergic drugs?

Mydriasis

52
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Which adrenergic drug is a selective Beta-2 agonist used as a quick-relief bronchodilator for acute asthma attacks?

Albuterol (Ventolin)

53
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Which medication is a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks both Beta-1 and Beta-2 receptors?

Propranolol (Inderal)

54
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What is the maximum recommended "cardiac dose" of epinephrine (1:100,000) for a patient taking a non-selective beta-blocker?

B) 0.04 mg (approx. 2 cartridges)

55
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Which direct-acting cholinergic agent is used in dentistry to treat xerostomia associated with Sjogren's syndrome?

Pilocarpine (Salagen)

56
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Indirect-acting cholinergic drugs like Donepezil (Aricept) increase acetylcholine concentration by inhibiting which enzyme?

Acetylcholinesterase

57
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In the "ABCD" mnemonic for anticholinergic drug adverse effects, what does the letter "C" stand for?

Constipation

58
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Which anticholinergic drug is administered to reduce salivary flow before specific dental procedures?

Atropine

59
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Which dietary or hygiene advice is recommended for a dental patient suffering from drug-induced xerostomia?

Chew sugarless gum or candy

60
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Why should patients who use an albuterol inhaler be instructed to rinse their mouth with water after each dose?

To reduce the risk of oral candidiasis and dry mouth

61
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Using a drug in the wrong dose or for a longer duration than prescribed is defined as

misuse

62
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What term describes the state in which emotional abnormalities and drug-seeking behavior occur when a drug is withdrawn?

Psychological dependence

63
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The requirement to continually increase the drug dosage to achieve the same therapeutic or euphoric effect is termed

Tolerance

64
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Delirium tremens (DTs) refers to a severe, shaky withdrawal state associated with chronic abuse of

Ethyl alcohol

65
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Which agent used to treat alcoholism makes a person physically ill if alcohol is consumed by inhibiting aldehyde dehydrogenase?

Disulfiram (Antabuse)

66
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Chronic abuse of nitrous oxide by dental health professionals can cause myeloneuropathy, which manifests as:

Loss of finger dexterity, numbness, and paresthesia of extremities

67
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Which classical triad of clinical signs is characteristic of acute opioid overdose?

Pinpoint pupils miosis, respiratory depression, and unconsciousness/sedation

68
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What drug is administered to reverse acute opioid overdose and respiratory depression?

Naloxone (Narcan)

69
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Which long-acting opioid agonist is used in medical detoxification and maintenance programs for opioid dependence?

Methadone

70
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Dental local anesthetics containing vasoconstrictors (epinephrine) must be avoided for at least 24 hours after recent use of

Cocaine or methamphetamine

71
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"Meth mouth" is typically characterized by rampant decay located primarily on which area of the teeth?

Cervical third of the teeth

72
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Chronic methamphetamine users often experience formication, which is

The sensation of insects crawling under the skin

73
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Which oral medication prescribed for smoking cessation acts as an antidepressant?

Bupropion (Zyban / Wellbutrin)

74
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if an emergency dental extraction is required on a patient actively under the influence of opioids, which local anesthetic is preferred to avoid potentiating cardiac effects?

3% Mepivacaine plain (without vasoconstrictor)

75
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Which autonomic nervous system response occurs during sympathetic activation?

Relaxation of the urinary bladder and bronchodilation

76
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How do anticholinergic drugs affect eye function?

Cause blurred vision and pupil dilation

77
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Which spinal cord region gives rise to the preganglionic neurons of the Sympathetic Autonomic Nervous System (SANS)?

Thoracolumbar portion

78
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Where do preganglionic neurons of the Parasympathetic Autonomic Nervous System (PANS) originate?

Brain stem cranial nerves (CN III, VII, IX, X) and sacral spinal cord (S2-S5)

79
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Which neurotransmitter is released by postganglionic neurons in the Parasympathetic division?

Acetylcholine

80
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In the Sympathetic division, most postganglionic neurons release which neurotransmitter onto target organs?

Norepinephrine

81
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What exception exists for neurotransmitter release in sympathetic postganglionic innervation?

Sweat glands are innervated by SANS but release acetylcholine

82
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Which statement correctly compares ocular responses under SANS versus PANS activation?

SANS causes pupil dilation (mydriasis); PANS causes pupil constriction (miosis)

83
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How do SANS and PANS differ in their effect on salivary gland secretions?

SANS stimulates mucus-secreting cells producing thick saliva and xerostomia; PANS stimulates salivary flow

84
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What effect does the Parasympathetic division have on the respiratory system?

Constricts breathing and bronchioles

85
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Receptors in the sympathetic nervous system are categorized as

Alpha and beta receptors

86
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Parasympathetic receptors located on target tissues are categorized as

Muscarinic and nicotinic

87
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The term used for drugs that block sympathetic receptors (alpha or beta) is

Sympatholytics

88
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the term used for drugs that block muscarinic or nicotinic receptors is

Parasympatholytics or anticholinergics

89
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Which statement best describes gastrointestinal tract responses to SANS and PANS activation?

SANS inhibits digestion; PANS stimulates digestion and GI activity

90
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What is the primary function and memory key for Beta receptor distribution?

Beta-1 affects heart; Beta-2 affects lungs ("ONE heart, TWO lungs")

91
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What is the effect of SANS vs PANS on the urinary bladder?

SANS relaxes the bladder; PANS contracts the bladder

92
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Sympathomimetic (Adrenergic)

Drugs or agents that mimic the flight-or-fight response of the sympathetic nervous system.

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Sympatholytic

Drugs that block alpha or beta sympathetic receptors.

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Parasympathomimetic (Cholinergic):

Drugs or agents that mimic the rest-and-digest response of the parasympathetic nervous system.

95
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Parasympatholytic (Anticholinergic)

Drugs that block muscarinic or nicotinic parasympathetic receptors.

96
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What is the primary purpose of a local anesthetic?

To prevent pain by inhibiting the conduction of nerve impulses

97
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Local anesthetics work primarily by blocking which channels in the nerve membrane?

Sodium channels

98
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Blocking sodium channels prevents the generation of:

Action potentials

99
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Which method involves injecting the anesthetic close to a major nerve bundle?

Nerve block

100
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Which statement about local anesthetics is correct?

They decrease the rate of depolarization