APP - Quizes and Assignments

What are the four major elements found in the chemicals that comprise the human body?

A)otassium, phosphorus, sodium, hydrogen

B)Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen

C)Nitrogen, oxygen, calcium, sodium

D)Hydrogen, oxygen, calcium, sodium

B)Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen

The number of protons in an atom is represented by an element’s

A)Atomic mass

B)Mass number

C)Valence number

D)Atomic number

The correct answer is: Atomic number

• The atomic number represents the number of protons in an atom’s nucleus, which defines the element itself.

• Mass number = protons + neutrons.

• Atomic mass = weighted average of isotopes.

• Valence number = number of electrons in the outer shell (not protons).

Which relatively weak type of bond helps to stabilize the three dimensional structure of large molecules such as proteins and DNA?

A)Hydrogen

B)Ionic

C)Polar covalent

D)Covalent

The correct answer is: Hydrogen bond

• Hydrogen bonds are relatively weak individually but are critical in stabilizing the three-dimensional structure of large biological molecules like proteins (e.g., secondary structure such as α-helices and β-pleated sheets) and DNA (holding complementary strands together).

• Ionic and covalent bonds are stronger and form the primary structure of molecules, not the weak stabilizing interactions.

• Polar covalent bonds involve unequal electron sharing but are stronger than hydrogen bonds.

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Which type of chemical reaction breaks larger reactants into smaller products?

A)Exchange

B)Potential

C)Synthesis

D)Decomposition

The correct answer is: Decomposition reaction

• Decomposition reaction: Breaks down larger molecules into smaller components (e.g., AB → A + B).

• Synthesis reaction: Combines smaller molecules into larger ones.

• Exchange reaction: Involves parts of molecules swapping places (e.g., AB + CD → AD + CB).

• Potential is not a reaction type; it refers to stored energy.

The primary structure of protein consists of

A)Three dimensional folded confirmations

B)Alpha helices

C)Beta-pleated sheets

D)A sequence of amino acids linked by peptide bonds

The correct answer is: A sequence of amino acids linked by peptide bonds

• Primary structure: Linear sequence of amino acids joined by peptide bonds.

• Secondary structure: Local folding patterns such as alpha helices and beta-pleated sheets stabilized by hydrogen bonds.

• Tertiary structure: The overall three-dimensional folding of a single polypeptide chain.

• Quaternary structure: Arrangement of multiple polypeptide chains into a functional protein.

Which portion of the phospholipids are non-polar?

A)Fatty acid tails

B)Phosphate heads

C)Both the head and the tails are non-polar

D)Neither the head nor tails are non-polar

The correct answer is: Fatty acid tails

• Phosphate head: Polar and hydrophilic (water-attracting).

• Fatty acid tails: Non-polar and hydrophobic (water-repelling).

• This amphipathic nature allows phospholipids to form bilayers in cell membranes, with tails facing inward and heads facing outward.

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Plasma membranes are __________; which means that some chemicals move easily through plasma membranes while other chemicals do not.

A)Selectively permeable

B)Selectively soluble

C)Concentration gradient

D)Electrical gradient

The correct answer is: Selectively permeable

• Selectively permeable means the plasma membrane allows certain molecules or ions to pass freely (like water, gases) while restricting others (like large or charged molecules).

• This property is essential for maintaining homeostasis and controlling the internal environment of the cell.

Other options:

• Selectively soluble – not a standard term for membranes.

• Concentration gradient – refers to differences in solute concentration, not membrane property.

• Electrical gradient – refers to charge differences across the membrane, not permeability.

Microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules are all components of the cells

A)Plasma membrane

B)Nucleus

C)Ribosomes

D)Cytoskeleton

The correct answer is: Cytoskeleton

• The cytoskeleton provides structural support, helps maintain cell shape, and facilitates intracellular transport and movement.

• It is composed of:

  • Microfilaments (actin filaments) – involved in cell shape, movement, and endocytosis/exocytosis.

  • Intermediate filaments – provide tensile strength and stability.

  • Microtubules – form the mitotic spindle, cilia, flagella, and tracks for intracellular transport.

Other options:

• Plasma membrane – outer boundary of the cell.

• Nucleus – contains genetic material.

• Ribosomes – sites of protein synthesis.

Which portion of the mRNA segment does NOT code for proteins and is spliced out?

A)RNA

B)Exons

C)Polyribosomes

D)Introns

The correct answer is: Introns

• Introns: Non-coding segments of pre-mRNA that are removed (spliced out) during RNA processing.

• Exons: Coding regions that remain in the mRNA and are expressed as proteins.

• Polyribosomes: Clusters of ribosomes translating mRNA simultaneously; not related to splicing.

• RNA: General term for ribonucleic acid; doesn’t specify coding or non-coding regions.

During this portion of the cell division, organelles duplicate and centrosome replication begins.

A)Telophase

B)Interphase

C)Metaphase

D)Prophase

The correct answer is: Interphase

• During Interphase (specifically the G1 and S phases):

  • Organelles duplicate.

  • Centrosomes begin to replicate in preparation for mitosis.

  • DNA replication also occurs during the S phase.

Other options:

• Prophase: Chromosomes condense and spindle fibers begin forming.

• Metaphase: Chromosomes align at the cell’s equator.

• Telophase: Nuclear membranes reform and cytokinesis begins.

These types of cell junctions anchor adjacent cells together and resist their separation during contractile activities.

A)Hemidesmosomes and gap junctions

B)Desmosomes and gap junctions

C)Tight junctions and hemidesmosomes

D)Adherents junctions and desmosomes

The correct answer is: Adherens junctions and desmosomes

• Adherens junctions: Use actin filaments to help anchor cells to each other, providing strong mechanical attachments.

• Desmosomes: Use intermediate filaments (like keratin) to strongly anchor adjacent cells, especially in tissues subject to stress (e.g., cardiac muscle, skin epithelium).

• Together, they resist separation during stretching or contraction.

Other options:

• Hemidesmosomes anchor cells to the basement membrane, not to adjacent cells.

• Gap junctions allow communication, not anchoring.

• Tight junctions create a seal, not mechanical strength.

The extra cellular matrix of connective tissue consists of

A)Enzymes and membranous organelles

B)Keratinized cells and protein fibers

C)Protein fibers and ground substance

D)Plasma membrane and ground substance

The correct answer is: Protein fibers and ground substance

• The extracellular matrix (ECM) of connective tissue is made up of:

  • Protein fibers: Collagen (strength), elastic (flexibility), and reticular fibers (support).

  • Ground substance: Fluid, gel, or solid material that fills the spaces between cells and fibers; composed of water, glycosaminoglycans, and proteoglycans.

Other options are incorrect because:

• Enzymes and membranous organelles – Found inside cells, not in ECM.

• Keratinized cells and protein fibers – Keratinized cells are epithelial, not connective tissue.

• Plasma membrane and ground substance – Plasma membrane belongs to cells, not ECM.

The pubic symphysis and intervertebral discs are composed of

A)Fibrocartilage

B)Dense irregular connective tissue

C)Elastic cartilage

D)Hyaline cartilage

The correct answer is: Fibrocartilage

• Fibrocartilage: Strongest type of cartilage; contains dense bundles of collagen fibers. It provides tensile strength and shock absorption, found in pubic symphysis and intervertebral discs.

• Hyaline cartilage: Found in articular surfaces, trachea, and costal cartilages; provides smooth surfaces for movement.

• Elastic cartilage: Found in ear (auricle) and epiglottis; provides flexibility.

• Dense irregular connective tissue: Found in dermis and organ capsules, not in cartilage.

Which cells considered excitable cells because they are able to produce electrical signals?

A)Neuroglial cells and muscle cells

B)Neurons and gap junctions

C)Muscle cells and neurons

D)Muscle cells and fibroblasts

The correct answer is: Muscle cells and neurons

• Excitable cells are capable of generating action potentials (electrical signals) in response to stimuli.

• Neurons: Transmit nerve impulses.

• Muscle cells (skeletal, cardiac, smooth): Generate electrical signals that lead to contraction.

Other options:

• Neuroglial cells: Support neurons but do not generate action potentials.

• Gap junctions: Structures for cell communication, not cells themselves.

• Fibroblasts: Produce connective tissue components; not excitable.

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What are the name of support cells that aid electrically excited cells in the nervous system?

A)Neuroglial cells

B)Muscle cells

C)Neurons

D)Axon

The correct answer is: Neuroglial cells

• Neuroglial cells (glial cells): Support, nourish, and protect neurons; maintain homeostasis in the nervous system but do not conduct electrical impulses.

• Neurons: Electrically excitable cells that transmit signals.

• Muscle cells: Excitable but function in contraction, not neural support.

• Axon: A part of a neuron that conducts electrical impulses, not a support cell.

Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium composes the 

a)Hypodermis

b)Dermis

c)Superficial fascia

d)Epidermis

The correct answer is: Epidermis

• The epidermis is composed of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium, which provides a tough, protective outer layer that resists abrasion and prevents water loss.

• Dermis: Made of dense irregular connective tissue, contains blood vessels, nerves, and accessory structures.

• Hypodermis (subcutaneous layer): Consists mostly of adipose tissue and loose connective tissue.

• Superficial fascia: Refers to the same region as the hypodermis in many anatomical texts.

Which pigment secreted by specialized cells in the skin is capable of absorbing ultraviolet light?

a)Keratin

b)Carotene

c)Melatonin

d)Melanin

The correct answer is: Melanin

• Melanin: Produced by melanocytes in the epidermis; absorbs ultraviolet (UV) light and protects DNA in skin cells from UV-induced damage.

• Keratin: Structural protein providing toughness and waterproofing, not UV protection.

• Carotene: Yellow-orange pigment stored in the skin, contributes to skin color but not UV absorption.

• Melatonin: Hormone from the pineal gland regulating sleep-wake cycles, not related to UV protection.

Dense irregular connective tissue can be found in the

a)Hypodermis

b)Epidermis

c)Basement membrane

d)Dermis

The correct answer is: Dermis

• The dermis, particularly the reticular layer, is primarily composed of dense irregular connective tissue, which provides tensile strength in multiple directions.

• Epidermis: Made of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

• Hypodermis: Primarily adipose and loose connective tissue (not dense irregular).

• Basement membrane: Thin layer of extracellular matrix between the epidermis and dermis; not dense irregular tissue.

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This secretion of fats, sterols, proteins, and salts, prevents water loss and can inhibit the growth of some bacteria

a)Mucus

b)Sweat

c)Sebum

d)Cerumen

The correct answer is: Sebum

• Sebum: Oily secretion from sebaceous glands containing fats, sterols, proteins, and salts. It prevents water loss, keeps skin and hair pliable, and has antimicrobial properties.

• Mucus: Thick secretion for lubrication and protection in mucous membranes.

• Sweat: Watery secretion for thermoregulation and excretion, not primarily for water loss prevention.

• Cerumen: Earwax; protects the ear canal but is a mix of sebum and sweat gland secretions.

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A raised scar that extends into previously normal tissue is a(n)

a)Granulation scar

b)Epidermal scar

c)Hypertrophic scar

d)Keloid scar

The correct answer is: Keloid scar

• Keloid scar: Raised, extends beyond the boundaries of the original wound into normal tissue; caused by excessive collagen deposition during healing.

• Hypertrophic scar: Raised but remains within the original wound margins.

• Granulation scar: Refers to granulation tissue formation, not the final scar type.

• Epidermal scar: Not a recognized classification for scar types.

The shaft of the long bone is the

a)Periosteum

b)Diaphysis

c)Epiphysis

d)Metaphysis

The correct answer is: Diaphysis

• Diaphysis: The shaft or long central part of a long bone, primarily composed of compact bone and containing the medullary cavity.

• Epiphysis: The expanded ends of a long bone, involved in joint formation.

• Metaphysis: The region between the diaphysis and epiphysis; contains the growth plate (epiphyseal plate) in growing bones.

• Periosteum: The connective tissue membrane covering the outer surface of bones.

The ____________ is the region of long bone that contains hyaline cartilage used for growth in length.

a)Metaphysis

b)Diaphysis

c)Articulate cartilage

d)Epiphyseal line

The correct answer is: Metaphysis

• The metaphysis is the region between the diaphysis and epiphysis of a long bone.

• It contains the epiphyseal plate (made of hyaline cartilage) in growing bones, which allows for longitudinal growth.

• In adults, the plate is replaced by the epiphyseal line after growth ceases.

Other options:

• Diaphysis – the shaft of the bone.

• Articular cartilage – covers joint surfaces for smooth movement, not growth.

• Epiphyseal line – remnant of the growth plate after growth stops.

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The cells active in fracture repair during the production of the hard (spongy bone) callus.

a)Osteoclasts

b)Osteoblasts

c)Chondroblasts

d)Osteocytes

The correct answer is: Osteoblasts

• During fracture repair, after the soft (fibrocartilaginous) callus forms, osteoblasts lay down spongy bone to create the hard bony callus.

• Osteoclasts: Break down bone tissue during remodeling.

• Chondroblasts: Produce cartilage during the soft callus stage.

• Osteocytes: Mature bone cells that maintain bone tissue, not primarily active in forming new bone.

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Which two minerals are needed in large quantities when bones are growing?

a)Magnesium and phosphorus

b)Potassium and phosphorus

c)Calcium and phosphorus

d)Calcium and chlorine

The correct answer is: Calcium and phosphorus

• Calcium: Essential for bone hardness and strength.

• Phosphorus: Combines with calcium to form hydroxyapatite crystals (Ca₁₀(PO₄)₆(OH)₂), which give bones their rigidity.

Other minerals like magnesium and fluoride are also important but required in smaller amounts compared to calcium and phosphorus.

Bone mass reduction is promoted by which hormone?

a)Insulin

b)Parathyroid hormone

c)Calcitonin

d)Calcitriol

The correct answer is: Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

• PTH increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclast activity, which breaks down bone matrix, leading to bone mass reduction.

• Calcitonin: Lowers blood calcium by inhibiting osteoclasts (promotes bone deposition).

• Calcitriol (active vitamin D): Increases calcium absorption from the gut; indirectly supports bone mineralization.

• Insulin: Involved in metabolism; not directly responsible for bone mass reduction.

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Which property of muscle gives it the ability to stretch without damage?

a)Elasticity

b)Extensibility

c)Contractility

d)Excitability

The correct answer is: Extensibility

• Extensibility: The ability of muscle tissue to stretch (lengthen) without being damaged.

• Elasticity: The ability to return to original shape after stretching or contracting.

• Contractility: The ability to shorten forcefully when stimulated.

• Excitability: The ability to respond to stimuli by generating action potentials.

The outermost layer of connective tissue surrounding a skeletal muscle is the 

a)Tendon

b)Epimysium

c)Endomysium

d)Perimysium

The correct answer is: Epimysium

• Epimysium: Outermost connective tissue layer that surrounds the entire skeletal muscle.

• Perimysium: Surrounds fascicles (bundles of muscle fibers).

• Endomysium: Surrounds individual muscle fibers.

• Tendon: Dense connective tissue that connects muscle to bone; not a covering layer of the muscle itself.

Skeletal muscle contraction is triggered to begin when calcium is released from

a)Mitochondria

b)Terminal cisterns of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

c)Myofibrils

d)T-tubules

The correct answer is: Terminal cisterns of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

• During skeletal muscle contraction:

  • Action potential travels along the sarcolemma and down the T-tubules.

  • This triggers calcium release from the terminal cisterns of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR).

  • Calcium binds to troponin, causing tropomyosin to shift and expose binding sites for myosin on actin, initiating contraction.

Other options:

• Mitochondria: Provide ATP, not calcium storage for contraction.

• Myofibrils: Contractile elements but do not store calcium.

• T-tubules: Conduct the action potential but do not store calcium.

Which protein is used to reinforce the sarcoma and help transmit the tension generated by the sarcomeres to the tendons?

a)Dystrophin

b)Titin

c)Tropomyosin

d)Myosin

The correct answer is: Dystrophin

• Dystrophin: Links the sarcomere (actin filaments) to the sarcolemma and extracellular matrix, helping transmit tension generated by muscle contraction to the tendons. A defect in this protein causes Duchenne muscular dystrophy.

• Titin: Provides elasticity and stabilizes thick filaments (myosin) within the sarcomere.

• Tropomyosin: Regulatory protein that blocks myosin-binding sites on actin.

• Myosin: Motor protein responsible for thick filaments and power stroke during contraction.

Which term describes a somatic motor neuron and all the skeletal muscle fibers it stimulates?

a)Neuromuscular junction

b)Synapse

c)Motor end plate

d)Motor unit

The correct answer is: Motor unit

• A motor unit consists of one somatic motor neuron and all the skeletal muscle fibers it innervates. When the neuron fires, all fibers in that motor unit contract simultaneously.

• Neuromuscular junction: The specific synapse between the motor neuron and a muscle fiber.

• Synapse: General term for the junction between two excitable cells.

• Motor end plate: The specialized region of the muscle fiber’s sarcolemma at the neuromuscular junction.

Which division of the peripheral nervous system only innervates the gastrointestinal tract’s wall?

a)Parasympathetic nervous system

b)Enteric nervous system

c)Somatic nervous system

d)Autonomic nervous system

The correct answer is: Enteric nervous system

• The enteric nervous system (ENS) is a specialized division of the peripheral nervous system that innervates only the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.

• It operates independently but can be influenced by the autonomic nervous system (sympathetic and parasympathetic).

Other options:

• Parasympathetic nervous system: Part of autonomic system, regulates many organs including GI but not limited to it.

• Somatic nervous system: Controls voluntary skeletal muscles.

• Autonomic nervous system: Controls involuntary functions in many organs, not exclusive to GI tract.

Which type of central nervous system tissue contains neuronal cell bodies, dendrites, unmyelinated axons, axon terminals, and neuroglial cells?

a)Nissl bodies

b)Ganglia

c)White matter

d)Grey matter

The correct answer is: Grey matter

• Grey matter contains:

  • Neuronal cell bodies

  • Dendrites

  • Unmyelinated axons

  • Axon terminals

  • Neuroglial cells

• White matter: Composed mostly of myelinated axons, responsible for signal transmission between different areas of the CNS.

• Ganglia: Collections of neuronal cell bodies in the PNS, not CNS.

• Nissl bodies: Rough endoplasmic reticulum in neurons, involved in protein synthesis, not a tissue type.

When a graded potential reaches threshold at the axon hillock

a)Ligand gated K channels open rapidly

b)Ligand gated Ca channels close rapidly

c)Ligand gated Na channels open rapidly

d)Voltage gated Na channels open rapidly

The correct answer is: Voltage-gated Na⁺ channels open rapidly

• When the graded potential reaches threshold at the axon hillock:

  • Voltage-gated sodium (Na⁺) channels open rapidly.

  • This causes sodium influx, leading to depolarization and initiation of the action potential.

Other options:

• Ligand-gated channels are used in graded potentials (at dendrites/soma), not at the axon hillock for action potential initiation.

• Voltage-gated K⁺ channels open later during repolarization, not at threshold.

• Voltage-gated Ca²⁺ channels are mainly involved at axon terminals for neurotransmitter release.

A type of neural circuit consists of a single presynaptic neuron synapsids with several postsynaptic neurons.

a)Simple series circuit

b)Converging circuits

c)Diverging circuits

d)Reverberating circuits

The correct answer is: Diverging circuits

• Diverging circuit: One presynaptic neuron synapses with multiple postsynaptic neurons, allowing one signal to be amplified and sent to different areas (e.g., sensory pathways sending signals to both the brain and spinal cord).

• Converging circuit: Multiple presynaptic neurons synapse with one postsynaptic neuron (integration of input).

• Simple series circuit: A straight pathway with one neuron connecting to the next.

• Reverberating circuit: Signal loops back to earlier neurons, producing rhythmic or repetitive output (e.g., breathing control).

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Acetylcholine is ___________ at the neuromuscular junctions and __________ at cardiac muscle in the parasympathetic pathway.

a)Excitatory; excitatory

b)Inhibitory; inhibitory

c)Inhibitory; excitatory

d)Excitatory; inhibitory

The correct answer is: Excitatory; inhibitory

• At neuromuscular junctions (skeletal muscle):

  • Acetylcholine (ACh) is excitatory — it binds to nicotinic receptors, causing sodium influx and muscle contraction.

• At cardiac muscle (parasympathetic pathway):

  • ACh is inhibitory — it binds to muscarinic receptors, leading to decreased heart rate by increasing potassium efflux and hyperpolarization.

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Which spinal meninges is composed of collagen fibers arranged in an irregular pattern that is very strong?

a)Pia mater

b)Dura mater

c)Arachnoid mater

d)Epineurium

The correct answer is: Dura mater

• Dura mater: Outermost meningeal layer; composed of dense irregular connective tissue rich in collagen fibers, providing strong protection for the brain and spinal cord.

• Arachnoid mater: Middle meningeal layer; web-like structure with collagen and elastic fibers.

• Pia mater: Innermost layer; thin and delicate, adheres to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.

• Epineurium: Connective tissue sheath surrounding peripheral nerves, not a meningeal layer.

If these structures were severed, the nerve impulses from pain and stretch receptors would not reach the CNS.

a)Anterior root of spinal nerves

b)White columns

c)Posterior root of spinal nerves

d)Gray horns

The correct answer is: Posterior root of spinal nerves

• Posterior (dorsal) root: Carries sensory (afferent) impulses from receptors (pain, stretch, temperature) to the CNS. Severing it would block sensory input.

• Anterior (ventral) root: Carries motor (efferent) impulses from CNS to muscles/glands.

• White columns: Contain ascending (sensory) and descending (motor) tracts within the spinal cord but are not individual entry points for sensory signals.

• Gray horns: Contain cell bodies and synapses but are not the sensory entry pathways.

Which of the following parts of a reflex arc can be monosynaptic or polysynaptic?

a)Sensory neuron

b)Sensory receptor

c)Integrating centre

d)Motor neuron

The correct answer is: Integrating centre

• The integrating centre (within the spinal cord or brainstem) is where sensory input is processed and motor output is determined.

• This centre can be:

  • Monosynaptic: Direct connection between sensory and motor neurons (e.g., stretch reflex).

  • Polysynaptic: Involves one or more interneurons between sensory and motor neurons (e.g., withdrawal reflex).

Other parts of the reflex arc (sensory receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron) do not determine whether the reflex is monosynaptic or polysynaptic — they are always present.

The spinal cord ends

a)At L5

b)At T12

c)At S5

d)Between L1 and L2

The correct answer is: Between L1 and L2

• In adults, the spinal cord typically ends at the conus medullaris, located between the L1 and L2 vertebrae.

• Below this point, the cauda equina (bundle of spinal nerve roots) continues within the vertebral canal.

Other options:

• T12: Too high; spinal cord continues below this level.

• L5 or S5: Too low; only nerve roots are present at these levels, not the spinal cord itself.

Which of the following lists the connective tissue coverings of the axons, fascicles, and entire nerve in the correct order?

a)Endoneurium, epineurium, perineurium

b)Epineurium, endoneurium, perineurium

c)Endoneurium, perineurium, epineurium

d)Perineurium, epineurium, endoneurium

The correct answer is: Endoneurium, Perineurium, Epineurium

• Endoneurium: Connective tissue surrounding individual axons (and their myelin sheaths).

• Perineurium: Connective tissue surrounding a fascicle (bundle of axons).

• Epineurium: Outermost connective tissue surrounding the entire nerve.

This arrangement goes from innermost to outermost.

Which of the following brain structure consists of the medulla oblongata, pons, and midbrain?

a)Cerebrum

b)Cerebellum

c)Brain stem

d)Diencephalon

The correct answer is: Brain stem

• The brain stem consists of three main parts:

  • Midbrain

  • Pons

  • Medulla oblongata

• It controls essential functions such as breathing, heart rate, and reflexes and serves as a conduit between the brain and spinal cord.

Other options:

• Cerebrum: Largest part of the brain, responsible for higher functions like thought and voluntary movement.

• Cerebellum: Coordinates balance and fine motor control.

• Diencephalon: Contains the thalamus and hypothalamus, involved in sensory relay and homeostasis.

Cerebral spinal fluid passes through what structure in the midbrain as it moves from the third to fourth ventricle?

a)Aqueduct of the midbrain

b)Fourth ventricle

c)Lateral ventricle

d)Septum pellucidum

The correct answer is: Aqueduct of the midbrain

• Also called the cerebral aqueduct or aqueduct of Sylvius, this narrow channel in the midbrain allows cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to flow from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle.

Other options:

• Fourth ventricle: Receives CSF after it passes through the aqueduct.

• Lateral ventricle: CSF originates here and flows to the third ventricle via the interventricular foramen.

• Septum pellucidum: Thin membrane separating the lateral ventricles; not part of CSF flow.

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Which region of the brain is separated by the third ventricle and projects most sensory information to the cerebral cortex from the spinal cord and brain stem

a)Midbrain

b)Hypothalamus

c)Thalamus

d)Pons

The correct answer is: Thalamus

• The thalamus:

  • Forms the walls of the third ventricle.

  • Acts as the major relay station for sensory information coming from the spinal cord and brainstem to the cerebral cortex.

  • Plays a role in sensory perception, motor function, and consciousness.

Other options:

• Hypothalamus: Controls autonomic and endocrine functions (temperature, hunger, hormones).

• Midbrain: Involved in reflexes and motor pathways.

• Pons: Relays signals between cerebrum and cerebellum; involved in breathing control.

Facial movement is primarily controlled by ________nerve, while sensation from the face is primarily determined by _________.

a)Trigeminal; facial

b)Accessory; facial

c)Glossopharyngeal; trigeminal

d)Facial; trigeminal

The correct answer is: Facial; trigeminal

• Facial nerve (cranial nerve VII): Controls muscles of facial expression (motor function).

• Trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V): Responsible for sensory innervation of the face (touch, pain, temperature).

Other options mix up motor vs sensory roles or involve unrelated cranial nerves.

Which cranial nerve is associated with nuclei in both the medulla oblongata and pons?

a)VIII

b)IX

c)VII

d)VI

The correct answer is: VIII (Vestibulocochlear nerve)

• The vestibulocochlear nerve (cranial nerve VIII) has nuclei located in both the pons and medulla oblongata:

  • Cochlear nuclei (hearing) are in the medulla.

  • Vestibular nuclei (balance) span both the pons and medulla.

Other options:

• VI (Abducens): Nucleus in the pons.

• VII (Facial): Nucleus in the pons.

• IX (Glossopharyngeal): Nucleus in the medulla only.

A postganglionic neuron in the ANS

a)Has its cell body in the brain or the spinal cord

b)Carries information into the sympathetic chain ganglia

c)is the first part of the autonomic pathway

d)Synapses with the effector cell

The correct answer is: Synapses with the effector cell

• In the autonomic nervous system (ANS):

  • The preganglionic neuron has its cell body in the CNS and synapses with the postganglionic neuron in an autonomic ganglion.

  • The postganglionic neuron then extends to the effector cell (smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, or gland) and synapses there.

Other options:

• It does not have its cell body in the brain/spinal cord (that’s preganglionic).

• It does not carry information into the sympathetic chain ganglia (that’s the preganglionic fiber).

• It is not the first part of the pathway (it’s the second).

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The two main neurotransmitters of the autonomic nervous system are 

a)Norepinephrine and acetylcholine

b)Acetylcholine and epinephrine

c)Acetylcholine and dopamine

d)Norepinephrine and epinephrine

The correct answer is: Norepinephrine and acetylcholine

• In the autonomic nervous system (ANS):

  • Acetylcholine (ACh) is released by:

    • All preganglionic neurons (both sympathetic and parasympathetic).

    • Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons at their target organs.

  • Norepinephrine (NE) is released by most sympathetic postganglionic neurons at their target organs.

Other options:

• Epinephrine is mainly released as a hormone from the adrenal medulla, not as a widespread neurotransmitter.

• Dopamine is important in the CNS, not the primary ANS transmitter.

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Cholinergic receptors include

a)Nicotinic and adrenergic receptors

b)Muscarinic and adrenergic receptors

c)Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors

d)Alpha and beta receptors

The correct answer is: Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors

• Cholinergic receptors respond to acetylcholine (ACh) and are divided into:

  • Nicotinic receptors: Found at neuromuscular junctions and autonomic ganglia (both sympathetic and parasympathetic).

  • Muscarinic receptors: Found on target organs in the parasympathetic pathway.

Other options:

• Adrenergic receptors (alpha and beta) respond to norepinephrine and epinephrine, not acetylcholine.

Which neurotransmitter is released at the synapse between the preganglionic and postganglionic neuron?

a)Epinephrine

b)Acetylcholine

c)Dopamine

d)Norepinephrine

The correct answer is: Acetylcholine

• At the synapse between preganglionic and postganglionic neurons in the autonomic nervous system (both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions), the neurotransmitter released is acetylcholine (ACh).

• Norepinephrine: Released by most sympathetic postganglionic neurons at target organs.

• Epinephrine: Primarily released as a hormone from the adrenal medulla.

• Dopamine: Functions mainly in the CNS, not the main transmitter in this synapse.

Which of the following statements describes a common response of an autonomic effector during the fight or flight response?

a)Adipose tissues store away triglycerides for later use

b)Blood vessels serving skeletal muscles constrict to divert blood to other locations

c)The pupils of the eyes dilate

d)Gastric motility increases

The correct answer is: The pupils of the eyes dilate

• During the fight or flight response (sympathetic activation):

  • Pupils dilate (mydriasis) to allow more light for better vision.

  • Blood vessels to skeletal muscles dilate (not constrict) to increase blood flow.

  • Adipose tissue breaks down triglycerides for energy (not store them).

  • Gastric motility decreases as digestion is inhibited.

__________ are sensory receptors located in blood vessels and visceral organs, whose signals are not consciously perceived.

a)Nociceptors

b)Exteroceptors

c)Proprioceptors

d)Interoceptors

The correct answer is: Interoceptors

• Interoceptors:

  • Located in blood vessels and visceral organs.

  • Monitor internal conditions (e.g., blood pressure, pH, stretch).

  • Their signals are usually not consciously perceived, except in cases like pain or strong visceral sensations.

Other options:

• Nociceptors: Detect pain (can be somatic or visceral).

• Exteroceptors: Detect external stimuli (touch, temperature, vision, hearing).

• Proprioceptors: Detect body position and movement (muscles, tendons, joints).

After initially detecting a scent, over time you would cease to notice it due to 

a)Transduction

b)Adaptation

c)Selectivity

d)Perception

The correct answer is: Adaptation

• Adaptation: A decrease in sensitivity to a constant stimulus over time. For example, after being exposed to a scent for a while, olfactory receptors become less responsive, and you stop noticing the smell.

Other options:

• Transduction: Conversion of a stimulus into a nerve impulse.

• Selectivity: Ability of receptors to respond to specific types of stimuli.

• Perception: Conscious interpretation of sensory information in the brain.

____________ convey impulses from lamellated corpuscles and synapse with another neuron in the posterior grey horn of the spinal cord.

a)Efferent neurons

b)Second order neurons

c)Third order neurons

d)First order neurons

The correct answer is: First order neurons

• First order neurons: Carry sensory information from receptors (e.g., lamellated corpuscles / Pacinian corpuscles) to the posterior gray horn of the spinal cord, where they synapse with second order neurons.

• Second order neurons: Carry information from the spinal cord to the thalamus.

• Third order neurons: Carry information from the thalamus to the cerebral cortex.

• Efferent neurons: Motor neurons carrying signals from CNS to effectors, not sensory.

The descending pathway

a)Controls sensory functions

b)Consists of neurons located completely within the spinal cord

c)Begins in the spinal cord and ends in the brain

d)Consists of upper and lower motor neurons

The correct answer is: Consists of upper and lower motor neurons

• Descending pathways carry motor commands from the brain to the spinal cord and out to skeletal muscles.

• They involve:

  • Upper motor neurons (UMNs): Begin in the brain (cortex or brainstem) and synapse in the spinal cord.

  • Lower motor neurons (LMNs): Exit the spinal cord to innervate skeletal muscles.

Other options:

• They do not control sensory functions (that’s ascending pathways).

• They do not begin in the spinal cord and end in the brain (reverse is true for ascending).

• They are not limited to neurons completely within the spinal cord.

Ask ChatGPT

Something causes the hairs on your arms to shift position. Which sensory receptor is stimulated?

a)Hair root plexus

b)Lamellated corpuscle

c)Nociceptors

d)Type I cutaneous mechanoreceptors

The correct answer is: Hair root plexus

• Hair root plexus: Free nerve endings wrapped around hair follicles; detect movement or displacement of hair shafts (e.g., light touch or breeze on skin).

• Lamellated corpuscle (Pacinian corpuscle): Detect deep pressure and vibration.

• Nociceptors: Detect pain (tissue damage).

• Type I cutaneous mechanoreceptors (Merkel discs): Detect sustained touch and pressure.

_____________ bind the odorants and begin signal transduction.

a)Basal stem cells

b)Olfactory cilia

c)Gustatory receptor cells

d)Supporting cells

The correct answer is: Olfactory cilia

• Olfactory cilia: Hair-like projections on olfactory receptor cells that contain odorant-binding proteins and receptors. They initiate signal transduction when odorants bind, leading to the perception of smell.

• Basal stem cells: Produce new olfactory receptor cells.

• Gustatory receptor cells: Involved in taste, not smell.

• Supporting cells: Provide structural and metabolic support for olfactory receptor cells.

Which is the transparent layer on the anterior of the eyeball through which the iris can be observed?

a)Retina

b)Ciliary body

c)Cornea

d)Sclera

The correct answer is: Cornea

• The cornea is the transparent anterior layer of the eye that covers the iris and pupil, allowing light to enter the eyeball.

• Retina: Inner layer containing photoreceptors; not visible externally.

• Ciliary body: Produces aqueous humor and controls lens shape; located behind the iris.

• Sclera: White, opaque outer layer of the eye; provides structural support.

The first step in the visual transduction process that occurs in the retina is

a)Absorption of scattered light by the pigmented cells

b)Absorption of light by photopigments

c)Generation of action potentials in the optic nerve

d)Activation of amacrine cells

The correct answer is: Absorption of light by photopigments

• The first step in visual transduction in the retina occurs when photopigments in rods and cones absorb photons of light.

• This absorption triggers a change in the photopigment (e.g., rhodopsin in rods), leading to a cascade of events that result in the generation of electrical signals sent to the brain via the optic nerve.

Other options:

• Absorption of scattered light by pigmented cells helps reduce glare but is not the first step in transduction.

• Generation of action potentials in the optic nerve happens later in the pathway.

• Activation of amacrine cells occurs later in processing visual signals within the retina.

Which ear structure vibrates back and forth when sound waves strike?

a)Cochlea

b)Spiral organ

c)Tympanic membrane

d)Pinna

The correct answer is: Tympanic membrane

• The tympanic membrane (eardrum) vibrates when sound waves strike it, converting sound energy into mechanical vibrations that are transmitted through the auditory ossicles (malleus, incus, stapes).

• Cochlea: Contains sensory receptors for hearing but does not vibrate directly from sound waves; receives vibrations via ossicles.

• Spiral organ (Organ of Corti): Contains hair cells that transduce vibrations into neural signals; located within the cochlea.

• Pinna (auricle): Collects and funnels sound waves but does not vibrate.

Dynamic equilibrium is maintained by the

a)Semicircular canals

b)Spiral organ

c)Vestibule

d)Utricle and saccule

The correct answer is: Semicircular canals

• Dynamic equilibrium: Maintains balance during rotational or angular movements of the head (e.g., spinning, turning).

  • Detected by crista ampullaris located in the semicircular canals.

Other options:

• Utricle and saccule (in the vestibule): Responsible for static equilibrium (balance when stationary, detecting linear acceleration and head position relative to gravity).

• Spiral organ (Organ of Corti): Responsible for hearing, not balance.

• Vestibule: Contains utricle and saccule (static equilibrium), not dynamic.

Reduced red blood cell count or reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin is known as:

A) Polycythemia
B) Anemia
C) Hypoxia
D) Leukopenia

Correct Answer: B) Anemia

Explanation:

• Anemia: A condition where there is either a decreased number of red blood cells (RBCs) or reduced hemoglobin, leading to diminished oxygen transport in the body. Symptoms include fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath.

• Polycythemia: Opposite of anemia; characterized by increased RBC count.

• Hypoxia: A state of low oxygen levels in tissues, which can occur due to anemia but is not the same condition.

• Leukopenia: Refers to a low white blood cell count, unrelated to RBC count or hemoglobin.

Which is the most common cause of anemia?

 

a)Pernicious anemia

b)Iron-deficiency anemia

c)Hemorrhagic anemia

d)Sickle cell anemia

e)Aplastic anemia

The correct answer is: Iron-deficiency anemia

Explanation:

• Iron-deficiency anemia:

  • Most common cause of anemia worldwide.

  • Results from inadequate iron intake, chronic blood loss (e.g., GI bleeding, heavy menstruation), or malabsorption.

  • Leads to reduced hemoglobin production and microcytic, hypochromic RBCs.

• Pernicious anemia: Caused by vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor.

• Hemorrhagic anemia: Caused by acute or chronic blood loss.

• Sickle cell anemia: Genetic disorder causing abnormal hemoglobin (HbS) and sickling of RBCs.

• Aplastic anemia: Bone marrow failure to produce RBCs (also affects WBCs and platelets).

Anemia caused by acute or chronic blood loss is known as ________ anemia.
A) Iron-deficiency anemia
B) Hemorrhagic anemia
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Pernicious anemia

Correct Answer: B) Hemorrhagic anemia

Explanation:

• Hemorrhagic anemia: Results from blood loss, either acute (e.g., trauma, surgery) or chronic (e.g., gastrointestinal ulcers, heavy menstruation). The loss of red blood cells leads to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity.

• Iron-deficiency anemia: Caused by insufficient iron needed for hemoglobin synthesis; often develops secondary to chronic blood loss but is distinct from hemorrhagic anemia itself.

• Aplastic anemia: Caused by bone marrow failure, reducing production of RBCs, WBCs, and platelets.

• Pernicious anemia: Caused by vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor.

Which of the following symptoms is unique to hemolytic anemias?

a)Jaundice

b)Dyspnea

c)Cold hands and feet

d)Pale skin

e)Fatigue

The correct answer is: Jaundice

Explanation:

• Hemolytic anemia occurs when red blood cells are destroyed prematurely (hemolysis). This releases hemoglobin, which breaks down into bilirubin, leading to jaundice (yellowing of skin and sclera).

• Other symptoms like fatigue, pale skin, cold extremities, and dyspnea are common to most types of anemia and are not unique to hemolytic anemia.

______ anemia usually presents with frequent or severe infections and bleeding due to reduced blood cell production.

A) Hemolytic anemia
B) Iron-deficiency anemia
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Pernicious anemia

Correct Answer: C) Aplastic anemia

Explanation:

• Aplastic anemia:

  • Caused by bone marrow failure leading to pancytopenia (low RBCs, WBCs, and platelets).

  • Symptoms include frequent infections (due to low WBCs) and bleeding/bruising (due to low platelets), in addition to typical anemia symptoms like fatigue and pallor.

• Hemolytic anemia: Premature RBC destruction; often presents with jaundice.

• Iron-deficiency anemia: Microcytic anemia with fatigue, pallor, pica; infections/bleeding are not typical.

• Pernicious anemia: Vitamin B12 deficiency causing neurologic symptoms and macrocytic anemia.

Sustained hypertension is defined as a systolic pressure greater than _____ mmHg or a diastolic pressure greater than _____ mmHg.

A) 100 / 70
B) 130 / 80
C) 140 / 90
D) 160 / 100

Correct Answer: C) 140 / 90

Explanation:

• Hypertension (HTN) is clinically defined as:

  • Systolic blood pressure (SBP) ≥ 140 mmHg OR

  • Diastolic blood pressure (DBP) ≥ 90 mmHg
    measured on at least two separate occasions.

• 130/80 mmHg is used in some newer guidelines (e.g., ACC/AHA) as Stage 1 HTN but 140/90 mmHg remains the classic threshold in many texts (Tortora, Goodman & Fuller).

• 160/100 mmHg represents Stage 2 or severe hypertension.

• 100/70 mmHg is normal or low blood pressure.

Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat hypertension? a)Antibiotics

b)Antivirals

c)Diuretics

d)Chemotherapy

e)Antidepressants

The correct answer is: Diuretics

Explanation:

• Diuretics (e.g., thiazides like hydrochlorothiazide):

  • First-line drugs for treating hypertension.

  • Reduce blood volume by promoting sodium and water excretion, lowering cardiac output and blood pressure.

• Antibiotics: Treat bacterial infections, not hypertension.

• Antivirals: Treat viral infections, not hypertension.

• Chemotherapy: Used for cancer treatment.

• Antidepressants: Used for depression and anxiety, not for blood pressure control (some may even raise BP).

________ is inflammation of the myocardium, often caused by viral infections.

A) Endocarditis
B) Myocarditis
C) Pericarditis
D) Cardiomyopathy

Correct Answer: B) Myocarditis

Explanation:

• Myocarditis: Inflammation of the heart muscle (myocardium), commonly caused by viral infections (e.g., Coxsackievirus, adenovirus). Can lead to arrhythmias, heart failure, or dilated cardiomyopathy.

• Endocarditis: Inflammation of the inner lining of the heart and valves, usually bacterial.

• Pericarditis: Inflammation of the pericardial sac surrounding the heart.

• Cardiomyopathy: Disease of the heart muscle leading to dysfunction, not necessarily inflammatory.

_____ is inflammation of the endocardium, and it often affects the valves.

A) Myocarditis
B) Pericarditis
C) Endocarditis
D) Cardiomyopathy

Correct Answer: C) Endocarditis

Explanation:

• Endocarditis: Inflammation of the endocardium (inner lining of the heart), most often affecting heart valves. Commonly caused by bacterial infections (infective endocarditis). Can lead to vegetations, emboli, and valve destruction.

• Myocarditis: Inflammation of the heart muscle (myocardium).

• Pericarditis: Inflammation of the pericardial sac surrounding the heart.

• Cardiomyopathy: Non-inflammatory disease of the heart muscle.

____ is inflammation of the sac around the heart.

A) Myocarditis
B) Pericarditis
C) Endocarditis
D) Cardiomyopathy

Correct Answer: B) Pericarditis

Explanation:

• Pericarditis: Inflammation of the pericardium, the sac-like membrane surrounding the heart. It can cause sharp chest pain that worsens with deep breathing or lying flat and improves when sitting forward.

• Myocarditis: Inflammation of the heart muscle (myocardium).

• Endocarditis: Inflammation of the inner lining of the heart, typically affecting valves.

• Cardiomyopathy: Disease of the heart muscle, not necessarily inflammatory.

Which type of carditis is most often caused by bacterial infections?

 

a)Endocarditis

b)Aorticitis

c)Phlebitis

d)Myocarditis

e)Pericarditis

The correct answer is: Endocarditis

Explanation:

• Endocarditis: Most often caused by bacterial infections (e.g., Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus viridans). It involves inflammation of the endocardium and heart valves, leading to vegetations that can cause emboli or valve destruction.

• Pericarditis: Often viral, sometimes due to autoimmune disease or post-MI (Dressler’s syndrome).

• Myocarditis: Most commonly viral (e.g., Coxsackievirus).

• Aorticitis: Inflammation of the aorta, usually linked to syphilis or autoimmune disease, not commonly bacterial.

• Phlebitis: Inflammation of a vein, often due to trauma or clot formation (thrombophlebitis), not primarily a heart condition.

Which of the following is a possible complication of pericarditis?

 

a)Deep vein thrombosis

b)Cardiac tamponade

c)Pulmonary embolism

d)Aortic aneurysm

e)Stroke

The correct answer is: Cardiac tamponade

Explanation:

• Pericarditis (inflammation of the pericardial sac) can lead to pericardial effusion (fluid accumulation).

• If the fluid builds up rapidly or in large amounts, it can cause cardiac tamponade — compression of the heart that impairs filling and reduces cardiac output (medical emergency).

Other options:

• Deep vein thrombosis (DVT): Clot formation in deep veins, unrelated to pericarditis.

• Pulmonary embolism: Blockage of pulmonary arteries by clots, not a direct pericarditis complication.

• Aortic aneurysm: Dilation of the aorta; unrelated.

• Stroke: May occur from emboli, but not a common complication of pericarditis.

______ is a condition where chest pain or discomfort is caused by a temporary reduction of blood flow through the coronary arteries.

A) Myocardial infarction
B) Angina pectoris
C) Pericarditis
D) Heart failure

Correct Answer: B) Angina pectoris

Explanation:

• Angina pectoris: Chest pain due to transient myocardial ischemia (reduced blood flow in coronary arteries) without permanent damage to heart tissue. Pain often occurs with exertion and is relieved by rest or nitroglycerin.

• Myocardial infarction (MI): Complete blockage of blood flow causing permanent damage (heart attack).

• Pericarditis: Inflammation of pericardial sac; pain worsens when lying down and improves when leaning forward.

• Heart failure: Inability of heart to pump effectively; causes dyspnea and fluid overload, not isolated chest pain.

Which of the following combinations correctly matches the characteristics of stable angina and unstable angina?

A)

• Occurs with exertion only – Stable angina

• Occurs at rest – Unstable angina

B)

• Improves significantly with rest – Unstable angina

• More often relieved by nitroglycerin – Stable angina

C)

• Occurs at rest – Stable angina

• Occurs with exertion only – Unstable angina

D)

• More often relieved by nitroglycerin – Unstable angina

• Improves significantly with rest – Stable angina

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

• Stable angina:

  • Triggered by exertion or stress.

  • Improves with rest and nitroglycerin.

  • Predictable pattern.

• Unstable angina:

  • Can occur at rest or with minimal exertion.

  • Not fully relieved by rest or nitroglycerin.

  • Considered a medical emergency (part of acute coronary syndrome).

Which type of heart failure is more common, LSHF or RSHF, and why?

 

a)Right-sided heart failure, because it is a primary condition affecting the right ventricle.

b)Right-sided heart failure, because it is often caused by chronic lung diseases.

c)Left-sided heart failure, because it frequently occurs as a result of mitral valve stenosis.

d)Left-sided heart failure, because it pumps into areas of higher pressure

e)Both types are equally common, as they usually occur independently without influencing each other.

 

The correct answer is:
Left-sided heart failure, because it pumps into areas of higher pressure

Explanation:

• Left-sided heart failure (LSHF) is more common because:

  • The left ventricle pumps blood into the systemic circulation, which operates under higher pressure than the pulmonary circuit.

  • Conditions like hypertension, aortic stenosis, and myocardial infarction more commonly affect the left ventricle, leading to failure.

• Right-sided heart failure (RSHF) often occurs secondary to left-sided failure (backflow of blood increases pulmonary pressures) or due to chronic lung diseases (cor pulmonale).

• The statement about mitral valve stenosis specifically causing LSHF is partially true but not the primary reason for its higher prevalence.

• They do not occur equally; RSHF is usually secondary to LSHF rather than independent.

Left-sided heart failure leads to ______ edema.
Right-sided heart failure leads to ______ edema.

A) Systemic; Pulmonary
B) Pulmonary; Systemic
C) Cerebral; Pulmonary
D) Pulmonary; Cerebral

Correct Answer: B) Pulmonary; Systemic

Explanation:

• Left-sided heart failure (LSHF):

  • Blood backs up into the lungs due to impaired left ventricular pumping.

  • Results in pulmonary edema: shortness of breath, orthopnea, crackles on auscultation.

• Right-sided heart failure (RSHF):

  • Blood backs up into the systemic venous circulation.

  • Results in peripheral edema: swollen ankles, ascites, jugular venous distension.

Which condition is characterized by periodic episodes of vasospasms in the extremities?

 

a)Varicose Veins

b)Buerger Disease

c)Deep Vein Thrombosis

d)Raynaud’s Diseas

e)Atherosclerosis

The correct answer is: Raynaud’s Disease

Explanation:

• Raynaud’s Disease:

  • Characterized by episodic vasospasm of small arteries/arterioles, usually in the fingers and toes, triggered by cold or stress.

  • Leads to color changes (white → blue → red), numbness, and pain during episodes.

• Varicose veins: Dilated, tortuous superficial veins, usually in the legs, caused by venous insufficiency.

• Buerger Disease (Thromboangiitis obliterans): Inflammatory condition of small/medium arteries and veins, strongly associated with smoking; causes ischemia and ulcers.

• Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT): Blood clot in deep veins, often in legs; risk of pulmonary embolism.

• Atherosclerosis: Plaque buildup in arteries; can cause chronic ischemia but not periodic vasospasms.

_____ disease is an inflammatory condition of small and medium-sized arteries, often associated with long-term cigarette smoking.

A) Raynaud’s Disease
B) Buerger’s Disease
C) Atherosclerosis
D) Varicose Veins

Correct Answer: B) Buerger’s Disease

Explanation:

• Buerger’s Disease (Thromboangiitis Obliterans):

  • A non-atherosclerotic inflammatory disease affecting small and medium-sized arteries and veins, primarily in the extremities.

  • Strongly associated with tobacco use (smoking).

  • Leads to ischemia, pain, and gangrene in severe cases.

  • Management focuses on smoking cessation.

• Raynaud’s Disease: Vasospastic episodes of small arteries in response to cold/stress.

• Atherosclerosis: Plaque buildup in large/medium arteries, not primarily inflammatory.

• Varicose Veins: Dilated superficial veins due to venous insufficiency, not inflammatory arterial disease.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?

 

a)Pregnancy

b)Family history of DVT

c)Oral contraceptives

d)Active cancer

e) All of these options are risk factors for DVT

 

The correct answer is: All of these options are risk factors for DVT

Explanation:

• Risk factors for Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT):

  • Pregnancy: Increased venous stasis and hypercoagulability.

  • Family history of DVT: Genetic predispositions like Factor V Leiden mutation.

  • Oral contraceptives: Estrogen increases clotting risk.

  • Active cancer: Malignancy and chemotherapy increase hypercoagulability.

Since all listed options are recognized risk factors, the correct choice is “All of these options are risk factors for DVT.”

Varicose veins are typically caused by ______ valves in the veins.

A) Competent
B) Incompetent
C) Closed
D) Healthy

Correct Answer: B) Incompetent

Explanation:

• Varicose veins occur when venous valves become incompetent (fail to close properly), allowing backflow of blood (venous reflux).

• This leads to venous pooling, vein dilation, and tortuous appearance, most commonly in the legs due to gravity and prolonged standing.

Other options:

• Competent/Healthy/Closed valves do not cause varicosities — they maintain normal one-way venous blood flow toward the heart.

Which symptom is commonly associated with varicose veins?

 

a)Shortness of breath

b)Fatigue or ache in the legs

c)Chest pain

d)Headache

e)Abdominal pain

The correct answer is: Fatigue or ache in the legs

Explanation:

• Varicose veins commonly present with:

  • Aching, heaviness, or fatigue in the legs (worse after standing)

  • Swelling around ankles

  • Visible twisted, dilated superficial veins

  • Symptoms improve with leg elevation

• Shortness of breath and chest pain are more indicative of pulmonary embolism or cardiac conditions.

• Headache and abdominal pain are not typical symptoms of varicose veins.

The site of exchange between blood and tissue occurs at the

a)Capillaries

b)Venules

c)Arterioles

d)Veins

The correct answer is: Capillaries

Explanation:

• Capillaries:

  • Smallest blood vessels with thin walls (one-cell thick).

  • Site of gas exchange (O₂ and CO₂), nutrient delivery, and waste removal between blood and tissues.

• Arterioles: Regulate blood flow into capillary beds but are not the primary site of exchange.

• Venules: Collect blood from capillaries and begin the return flow to veins.

• Veins: Return blood to the heart; not involved in nutrient/gas exchange.

Which of the following is found in veins but NOT in arteries

a)Valves

b)Tunica interna

c)Tunica externa

d)Tunica media

The correct answer is: Valves

Explanation:

• Valves:

  • Present in veins (especially in limbs) to prevent backflow of blood and assist return to the heart against gravity.

  • Not found in arteries, since arterial blood flow is propelled by high pressure from the heart.

• Tunica interna, tunica media, and tunica externa:

  • Present in both veins and arteries, though thickness differs (arteries have thicker tunica media for higher pressure).

Which of the following are considered 'resistance vessels'?

a)Arterioles

b)Venules

c)Muscular arteries

d)Capillaries

The correct answer is: Arterioles

Explanation:

• Arterioles are called resistance vessels because:

  • They have small lumens and thick smooth muscle walls.

  • They regulate blood flow and blood pressure by constricting or dilating, creating significant resistance to blood flow.

• Muscular arteries: Distribute blood but are not the main site of resistance.

• Capillaries: Site of exchange, not resistance.

• Venules: Collect blood from capillaries; low resistance.

What layer of the arterial wall contains smooth muscle?

a)Tunica media

b)Tunica interna

c)Tunica externa

d)No answer text provided.

The correct answer is: Tunica media

Explanation:

• Tunica media:

  • Middle layer of the arterial wall.

  • Composed mainly of smooth muscle cells and elastic fibers.

  • Responsible for vasoconstriction and vasodilation, which regulate blood pressure and flow.

• Tunica interna (intima): Innermost layer; made of endothelium and connective tissue, provides a smooth surface for blood flow.

• Tunica externa (adventitia): Outermost layer; made of connective tissue for structural support and anchoring.

What blood vessels act as blood reservoirs?

a)Veins and venules

b)Arteries and arterioles

c)Capillaries and venules

d)Capillaries and arterioles

The correct answer is: Veins and venules

Explanation:

• Veins and venules:

  • Contain about 60–70% of the body’s total blood volume at rest.

  • Have thin walls and can distend easily, acting as blood reservoirs that can redistribute blood to other areas during increased demand (e.g., exercise or blood loss).

• Arteries and arterioles: Primarily function in distributing blood and regulating pressure, not storage.

• Capillaries: Primary site of exchange, not storage.

• Capillaries and arterioles: Neither serves as reservoirs; arterioles mainly regulate resistance.

Which of the following is correct?

a)At the arteriole end of the capillaries, the NFP favours movement of materials out of the capillary

b)At the venous end of the capillary NFP favours movement of materials out of the capillary

c)At the arteriole end of the capillaries NFP favours movement into the capillaries

d)The amount of fluid filtered and reabsorbed in the capillary bed is ALWAYS equal

At the arteriole end of the capillaries, the NFP favours movement of materials out of the capillary

Explanation:

• Net Filtration Pressure (NFP):

  • Determined by the balance between hydrostatic pressure (pushes fluid out) and oncotic pressure (pulls fluid in).

• Arteriole end of capillary:

  • Hydrostatic pressure is higher than oncotic pressure.

  • NFP is positive, favoring filtration (movement of fluid out into interstitial space).

• Venous end of capillary:

  • Hydrostatic pressure drops, oncotic pressure predominates.

  • NFP is negative, favoring reabsorption (fluid moves back into capillary).

• The amount filtered and reabsorbed is not always equal; excess fluid is returned via the lymphatic system.

Increased secretion of which of the following hormones would decrease blood pressure?

a)Atrial natriuretic peptide

b)Antidiuretic hormone

c)Aldosterone

d)Norepinephrine

The correct answer is: Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

Explanation:

• Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP):

  • Secreted by the atria in response to increased blood volume/pressure.

  • Promotes sodium and water excretion by the kidneys, leading to decreased blood volume and blood pressure.

  • Also causes vasodilation.

• Antidiuretic hormone (ADH): Increases water reabsorption → raises blood volume and increases blood pressure.

• Aldosterone: Increases sodium and water reabsorption → raises blood volume and increases blood pressure.

• Norepinephrine: Causes vasoconstriction and increased heart rate → increases blood pressure.

Which of the following is true regarding muscular arteries?

a)They are also known as distributing arteries

b)They recoil and propel blood after ventricular relaxation

c)They contain many layers of smooth muscle in the tunica interna

d)They make up the major arteries that branch off the heart

e)All options are true

The correct answer is: They are also known as distributing arteries

Explanation:

• Muscular arteries (distributing arteries):

  • Medium-sized arteries that distribute blood to specific body regions and organs.

  • Contain a thick tunica media with many layers of smooth muscle to control blood flow via vasoconstriction/vasodilation.

  • Examples: Brachial artery, femoral artery.

• The other statements describe elastic arteries (conducting arteries):

  • E.g., aorta, pulmonary trunk.

  • These arteries recoil and propel blood during ventricular relaxation due to their elastic fibers.

  • Major arteries branching directly off the heart are elastic, not muscular.

The smooth muscle in blood vessels is controlled by the:

a)Sympathetic nervous system only

b)Parasympathetic nervous system only

c)Sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

d)Enteric nervous system

e)None of these options

The correct answer is: Sympathetic nervous system only

Explanation:

• The smooth muscle in most blood vessels (especially arterioles) is primarily controlled by the sympathetic nervous system:

  • Vasoconstriction via norepinephrine acting on alpha-adrenergic receptors.

  • Some specialized vessels (e.g., coronary, erectile tissue) also receive parasympathetic input, but this is not widespread.

• Parasympathetic nervous system: Has minimal influence on vascular smooth muscle (mainly affects heart rate and certain glands).

• Enteric nervous system: Controls the GI tract, not systemic blood vessels.

Which of the following will increase vascular resistance?

a)Increase in lumen size

b)Decrease in blood vessel length

c)Decrease in blood viscosity

d)Decrease in lumen size

The correct answer is: Decrease in lumen size

Explanation:

• Vascular resistance is mainly influenced by three factors:

  1. Blood vessel diameter (lumen size):

     • Smaller lumen = greater resistance (most significant factor).

  2. Blood viscosity:

     • Higher viscosity = more resistance.

  3. Blood vessel length:

     • Longer vessel = more resistance.

• Decrease in lumen size (vasoconstriction) increases resistance and raises blood pressure.

• Increasing lumen size (vasodilation), decreasing viscosity, or shortening vessel length reduces resistance.

Edema is caused by:

a)Too much reabsorption or not enough filtration

b)Too much filtration or not enough reabsorption

c)Too much filtration and too much reabsorption

d)Not enough filtration and not enough reabsorption

The correct answer is: Too much filtration or not enough reabsorption

Explanation:

• Edema: Excess fluid accumulation in interstitial spaces.

• It occurs when:

  • Capillary filtration is excessive (↑ hydrostatic pressure or ↑ capillary permeability).

  • Capillary reabsorption is insufficient (↓ plasma proteins → reduced oncotic pressure).

  • Or impaired lymphatic drainage.

• Examples:

  • Heart failure → ↑ venous pressure → ↑ filtration.

  • Liver disease → ↓ albumin → ↓ reabsorption.

Which type of capillary would you find in most endocrine glands, kidneys, and villi of the small intestines?

a)Continuous

b)Fenestrated

c)Sinusoidal

d)None of these options

The correct answer is: Fenestrated

Explanation:

• Fenestrated capillaries:

  • Have small pores (fenestrations) in their endothelium.

  • Allow rapid exchange of water and small solutes while retaining larger proteins and cells.

  • Found in tissues with high rates of exchange, such as:

    • Endocrine glands (hormone release)

    • Kidneys (filtration)

    • Small intestine villi (nutrient absorption)

• Continuous capillaries:

  • No pores; least permeable.

  • Found in skin, muscle, lungs, and CNS (blood-brain barrier).

• Sinusoidal (discontinuous) capillaries:

  • Large gaps between endothelial cells; highly permeable.

  • Found in liver, spleen, and bone marrow.

Which of the following is not a branch of the abdominal aorta?

a)Esophageal artery

b)Celiac trunk

c)Renal artery

d)Inferior mesenteric artery

The correct answer is: Esophageal artery

Explanation:

• The abdominal aorta gives rise to major branches including:

  • Celiac trunk → supplies foregut organs (stomach, liver, spleen).

  • Renal arteries → supply kidneys.

  • Inferior mesenteric artery → supplies hindgut (distal colon and rectum).

• The esophageal arteries branch from the thoracic aorta, not the abdominal aorta.

At what level does the abdominal aorta branch into the left and right common iliac arteries?

a)L2

b)L3

c)L4

d)L5

The correct answer is: L4

Explanation:

• The abdominal aorta bifurcates into the left and right common iliac arteries at the level of L4 vertebra.

• This anatomical landmark is important for vascular surgery and imaging (e.g., abdominal aortic aneurysm screening).

Other levels:

• L2: Level of renal arteries branching.

• L3: Level of inferior mesenteric artery branching.

• L5: Level of formation of the inferior vena cava from common iliac veins (not arterial bifurcation).

The dural venous sinuses drain into which blood vessel?

a)Internal jugular vein

b)Vertebral vein

c)Internal carotid vein

d)Inferior vena cava

The correct answer is: Internal jugular vein

Explanation:

• The dural venous sinuses (e.g., superior sagittal sinus, transverse sinus, sigmoid sinus) collect venous blood from the brain and drain it into the internal jugular veins.

• The internal jugular veins then join the subclavian veins to form the brachiocephalic veins, which ultimately drain into the superior vena cava.

Other options:

• Vertebral vein: Drains part of the cervical spinal cord and posterior skull, not the primary drainage of dural sinuses.

• Internal carotid vein: Does not exist (internal carotid is an artery).

• Inferior vena cava: Collects blood from lower body, not directly from dural sinuses.

What is true regarding hypertension? 

a)It is diagnosed with a single blood pressure reading of greater than 140 mm Hg systolic and/or 90 mm Hg diastolic

b)primary hypertension refers to the high blood pressure with a clear medical cause, such as pheochromocytoma

c)most of the time hypertension is asymptomatic

d)all of the above are true

The correct answer is: most of the time hypertension is asymptomatic

Explanation:

• Hypertension diagnosis:

  • Requires multiple elevated readings (≥140/90 mmHg) on separate occasions, not a single reading.

• Primary hypertension:

  • Also called essential hypertension; has no identifiable cause (90–95% of cases).

  • Secondary hypertension has a clear medical cause (e.g., pheochromocytoma, renal artery stenosis).

• Most of the time hypertension is asymptomatic:

  • Known as the “silent killer” because damage occurs to organs (heart, kidneys, eyes) without noticeable symptoms.

Thus, only the statement about being asymptomatic is true.

Which of the following are the treatment options for hypertension?

a)smoking cessation

b)weight loss

c)medications

d)all of the above

The correct answer is: all of the above

Explanation:

Treatment of hypertension includes:

1. Lifestyle modifications (first-line for mild hypertension):

   • Weight loss

   • Smoking cessation

   • Reduced salt intake

   • Regular exercise

   • Limiting alcohol intake

   • Healthy diet (e.g., DASH diet)

2. Medications (if lifestyle changes are insufficient or BP is significantly high):

   • Diuretics

   • ACE inhibitors / ARBs

   • Calcium channel blockers

   • Beta-blockers (in selected cases)

Combining lifestyle changes with medications provides the best long-term control.

Which condition is a complication of essential (primary) hypertension? 

a)athlete's heart

b)atherosclerosis

c)coarctation of the aorta

d)rheumatic fever

The correct answer is: atherosclerosis

Explanation:

• Essential (primary) hypertension:

  • Chronic high blood pressure without an identifiable cause.

  • Major risk factor for atherosclerosis, which can lead to coronary artery disease, stroke, and peripheral arterial disease.

• Athlete’s heart: Physiological cardiac enlargement from endurance training, not a complication of hypertension.

• Coarctation of the aorta: Congenital narrowing of the aorta; causes secondary hypertension rather than resulting from it.

• Rheumatic fever: Autoimmune complication of untreated strep throat; affects valves, not caused by hypertension.

Which of the following factors could lead to a decrease in blood pressure? 

a)increased cardiac output

b)increased parasympathetic nervous system stimulation

c)increased heart rate

d)increased total peripheral resistance

The correct answer is: increased parasympathetic nervous system stimulation

Explanation:

• Parasympathetic stimulation (primarily via the vagus nerve):

  • Decreases heart rate (negative chronotropic effect)

  • Reduces cardiac output → leads to lower blood pressure

• Increased cardiac output, increased heart rate, and increased total peripheral resistance all raise blood pressure, not decrease it.