PMG

1. A project is plagued by requested changes to the project charter. Who has the primary responsibility to decide if these changes are necessary? | A. The project manager | B. The project team | C. The sponsor | D. The stakeholders

C. The sponsor

2. In Earned Value Management Technique, you can compute the Cost Performance Index (CPI) by applying which of following formula? | A. CPI = EV/PV | B. CPI = EV - AC | C. CPI = EV - PV | D. CPI = EV/AC

D. CPI = EV/AC

3. True or False: Project manager should consider using milestones for high level reporting | A. True | B. False

A. True

4. True or False: Project scope statement is better to define inclusions (in-scope items) than identify only exclusions (out of scope items). | A. False | B. True

B. True

5. Which one is NOT the approach to shorten your project schedule? | A. Fast Tracking | B. Crashing | C. Reducing

C. Reducing

6. A market demand, a business need, and a legal requirement are examples of: | A. Reasons to hire a project manager | B. Reasons projects are initiated | C. Reasons to sponsor a project | D. Reasons people or businesses become stakeholders

B. Reasons projects are initiated

7. You have finished planning and have begun executing the project when the client asks if you would shorten the project duration so that the project can finish 2 weeks earlier than the original plan. How are the triple constraints affected? | A. There is no relevant option except the project must be cut down on scope | B. Scope and cost may both be affected | C. Neither scope nor cost will beaffected in any situation | D. Cost will reduce as the project duration is shortened and scope is not changed

B. Scope and cost may both be affected

8. You are assigned as the project manager in the middle of the project. The project is within the baselines, but the customer is not happy with the performance of the project. What is the first thing you should do? | A. Discuss it with the project team | B. Recalculate baselines | C. Renegotiate the contract | D. Meet with the customer

D. Meet with the customer

9. In our lessons the acronym RAM stands for: | A. Responsible Accountable Manageable | B. Resource Aligned Management | C. Responsibility Assignment Matrix | D. Responsibility Accountability Matrix

C. Responsibility Assignment Matrix

10. When you report project status you compare actual performance to: | A. The planned performance or baseline. | B. The performance of your competitors. | C. The performance of previous projects. | D. The performance of other similar projects.

A. The planned performance or baseline.

11. Which organization structure can provide the most power for the project manager? | A. Functional | B. Weak Matrix | C. Balanced Matrix | D. Strongest Matrix | E. Projectized | F. Medium Matrix

E. Projectized

12. Which project management process group generally takes the most project time and resources? | A. Executing | B. Initiating | C. Monitoring and controlling | D. Closing | E. Planning

A. Executing

13. True or False: Each group of persons involved in the project should be assigned, and always needs to know their role and responsibility. | A. True | B. False

A. True

14. Which one is not the causes of scope creep? | A. Decreased understanding of what it takes to get it done | B. Changing stakeholder perspectives | C. Poorly defined objectives | D. Inability to say "NO" | E. Lack of defined change control process

A. Decreased understanding of what it takes to get it done

15. Lateral communication is NOT communication to/from: | A. Your customers. | B. Your friends. | C. Your subordinates. | D. Your peers.

C. Your subordinates.

16. True or False: In the context of a project, change is always a bad thing. | A. False | B. True

A. False

17. Project scope differs from product scope in that: | A. Project scope completion is measured against the features, functions, and product requirements. | B. Project scope is the work that needs to be accomplished to deliver a product, service, or result. | C. Product scope completion is measured against the project management plan including all subsidiary plans.

B. Project scope is the work that needs to be accomplished to deliver a product, service, or result.

18. True or False: The Cost Baseline is equal to the total of Activity Cost Estimates plus contingency reserves | A. True | B. False

A. True

19. True or False: The danger of estimating using the same parametric model is the no longer applicable of historical data | A. True | B. False

A. True

20. All of the following are inputs to estimating activity duration except: | A. Enterprise Environmental Factor & Organizational Process Assets | B. Risk Register & Scope Statement | C. Project Documents Updates & Requirements Specifications | D. Resource Calendars & Resource Breakdown Structure

C. Project Documents Updates & Requirements Specifications

21. You just came from a meeting with one of your project stakeholders, he knew well about your project and also its potential impacts, and actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. How would you classify him? | A. Supportive | B. Neutral | C. Unaware | D. Leading

D. Leading

22. What are the 5 approaches to conflict discussed in the Project Human Resources Management Lesson? | A. Confronting, Compromising, Smoothing, Uninterested, Challenging. | B. Communicating, Compromising, Smoothing, Forcing, Avoiding. | C. Confronting, Challenging, Smoothing, Forcing, Avoiding. | D. Confronting, Compromising, Smoothing, Forcing, Avoiding.

D. Confronting, Compromising, Smoothing, Forcing, Avoiding.

23. As you plan your project, you do so thinking that all team members will be assigned to your project for at least 50% of their available time. This is an example of: | A. Wishful thinking. | B. A project demand. | C. An assumption. | D. Poor planning.

C. An assumption.

24. Which of the following is the most correct statement regarding management and contingency reserves? | A. Both of them are included into the cost budget of the project. | B. Both of them are not included into the cost budget of the project. | C. Management reserve is included into the cost budget but contingency reserve is not. | D. Contingency reserve is included into the cost budget but management reserve is not.

D. Contingency reserve is included into the cost budget but management reserve is not.

25. All the following occur during the planning process group EXCEPT: | A. Develop Project Charter | B. Create WBS | C. Estimate Costs | D. Sequence Activities

A. Develop Project Charter

26. True or False: Influence means you have the right to apply resources, make decisions and give approvals. | A. True | B. False

B. False

27. Which item would most likely NOT be part of a basic communication plan: | A. What they need to know. | B. The best medium for the communication. | C. The amount of their annual bonus. | D. With whom to communicate.

C. The amount of their annual bonus.

28. To calculate late start (LS) of an activity, you will | A. Take its late finish minus its estimated duration. | B. Take its early finish minus its estimated duration. | C. Take its early start plus its estimated duration. | D. Take its early start

A. Take its late finish minus its estimated duration.

29. Which of the components below do you think NOT belong in the cost management plan? | A. Units of measure | B. Earned value rules | C. Control thresholds | D. RACI matrix

D. RACI matrix

30. True or False: Conflict management is the process by which the project manager uses appropriate managerial techniques to deal with the inevitable disagreements that develop among those working toward project accomplishment. | A. True | B. False

A. True

31. You are scheduling an activity which involves a government agency. What type of dependency are you working on? | A. Discretionary | B. Internal | C. Mandatory | D. External

D. External

32. True or False: Project Human Resource Management includes the processes that organize, manage, and lead the project team. | A. True | B. False

A. True

33. A project manager can defend against scope creep with a good change control process! | A. Risk management plan | B. Change control process | C. Project management plan | D. Procurement process

B. Change control process

34. Your stakeholder register should not contain: | A. Identification information | B. Assessment information | C. Stakeholder classification | D. Scope information

D. Scope information

35. Once you and your team identify and assess risks and develop responses you: | A. Have completed your risk management responsibilities. | B. Pay close attention to the risks identified and do not look for new risks. | C. Only update your risk register when you are preparing to share it with your stakeholders. | D. Continue to identify and monitor risks for the remainder of the project.

D. Continue to identify and monitor risks for the remainder of the project.

36. If "review online modules" needs to begin before "develop online modules" can finish, that is called a | A. Finish to start relationship. | B. Start to finish relationship. | C. Finish to finish relationship. | D. Start to start relationship.

B. Start to finish relationship.

37. True or False: The Project Sponsor is responsible for stakeholder expectations management. | A. False | B. True

A. False

38. To manage a project effectively, work should be broken down into small pieces. Which of the following does not describe how far to decompose the work? | A. Until it has a meaningful conclusion | B. Until it cannot be logically subdivided further | C. Until it can be done by one person | D. Until it can be realistically estimated

C. Until it can be done by one person

39. What description defines Bottoms Up Estimating? | A. A technique that uses a mathematical model to estimate costs. | B. A technique that analyzes activities on past projects and using them as a basis for estimating costs. | C. A technique that involves estimating the cost of individual work packages or individual schedule activities with the lowest level of detail.

C. A technique that involves estimating the cost of individual work packages or individual schedule activities with the lowest level of detail.

40. Which of the following action should not include in the Scope Management Plan? | A. Prepare a project scope statement based upon the project charter. | B. Enable the creation and maintenance of the project work breakdown structure (WBS). | C. Define how format verification and acceptance of completed deliverables will be accomplished. | D. Control how requests for changes to the project scope will be processed. | E. Define how to identify and manage triple constraints.

E. Define how to identify and manage triple constraints.

41. The definition of a stakeholder includes: | A. People and organizations that are not impacted by your project. | B. Organizations impacted by your project but not people, they are all part of the impacted organizations. | C. The people or organizations that are positively or negatively impacted by your project. | D. People who are impacted by your project, but not organizations impacted by your project.

C. The people or organizations that are positively or negatively impacted by your project.

42. True or False: The process improvement Plan is a component of the project management plan that details how project management and development processes are to be analyzed in order to identify how to increase their value | A. False | B. True

B. True

43. True or False: Your role as the project manager during quality control is to implement the quality management plan using the appropriate tools and techniques, in order to ensure that work is being performed according to required quality standards. | A. True | B. False

B. False

44. The purpose of project risk management is to: | A. Minimize the likelihood or the impact of positive events or threats to your project and to increase the likelihood or impact of negative events. | B. Minimize the likelihood or the impact of negative events or threats to your project and to increase the likelihood or impact of positive events. | C. Eliminate the likelihood or the impact of negative events or threats to your project and to decrease the likelihood or impact of positive events. | D. Neutralize the likelihood or the impact of negative events or threats to your project and to neutralize the likelihood or impact of positive events.

B. Minimize the likelihood or the impact of negative events or threats to your project and to increase the likelihood or impact of positive events.

45. Which element should NOT be included in risk management plan? | A. Budgeting | B. Timing | C. Roles and Responsibilities | D. Risk Register

D. Risk Register

46. An estimate created by looking at a similar project or activity and then adding or subtracting to or from the estimate based on the differences between the two is called: | A. Bottoms up estimating | B. Analogous estimating | C. Parametric estimating | D. Exact estimating

B. Analogous estimating

47. True or False: If you want to identify who your stakeholders are, asking who will not be impacted by the product or service being created can be helpful | A. False | B. True

A. False

48. True or False: Performing quality control within the context of a project Involves taking actions to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory project performance. | A. False | B. True

B. True

49. Which of the following is NOT likely to be documented in a communications management plan? | A. Person responsible for tracking risk events | B. Time frame and frequency of communication | C. How information will be communicated | D. What information will be communicated

A. Person responsible for tracking risk events

50. The best time to assign a project manager to a project is during: | A. Initiating | B. Planning | C. Executing | D. Integration | E. Project selection

A. Initiating

51. Which one is correct view of conflict? | A. Caused by troublemakers | B. Always bad | C. Natural result of change | D. Must be suppressed

C. Natural result of change

52. The WBS is used to derive all but one of the following? | A. The project schedule baseline | B. The business need for the project | C. The project cost performance baseline | D. The activity list

B. The business need for the project

53. The network diagram is the best tool for demonstrating. | A. Schedule performance over time | B. Schedule variances | C. Resource requirements | D. The sequence of project activities

D. The sequence of project activities

54. Which statement is not correct? | A. Project scope is the work that needs to be accomplished to deliver a product, service, of result. | B. Product scope completion is measured against the product requirement | C. Project scope completion is measured against the project management plan and specially the project scope statement, the work breakdown structure (WBS), and the WBS dictionary. | D. Product scope is the work that needs to be accomplished to complete a project

D. Product scope is the work that needs to be accomplished to complete a project

55. When you schedule work in a specific order because it cannot be completed any other way, what is the type of dependency used? | A. Discretionary | B. Internal | C. Mandatory | D. External

C. Mandatory

56. As part of planning you have created a scope baseline, a budget baseline, and a schedule baseline. Should those baselines ever be allowed to change? | A. No, a baseline is a baseline. | B. Yes, if the schedule slips it is OK to update the baseline. | C. Yes, if the project manager approves baseline changes. | D. Yes, if the baseline is completely unachievable and the project sponsor approves it

D. Yes, if the baseline is completely unachievable and the project sponsor approves it

57. All of the following is responsible for documenting lessons learned, except: | A. Project manager | B. Project team | C. Key stakeholders | D. Key competitors

D. Key competitors

58. Downward communication is communication to/from | A. Your senior management | B. Your social groups | C. Your direct reports. | D. Your peers

C. Your direct reports.

59. True or False: The primary goal of project risk management is to maximize the likelihood and impact of negative events or threats and to minimize the likelihood and impact of positive events or opportunities. | A. False | B. True

A. False

60. True or False: Project Human Resource Management includes the processes that organize, manage, and lead the project team. | A. False | B. True

B. True

61. Which one is not the five engagement levels of stakeholders? | A. Unaware | B. Resistant | C. Neutral | D. Supportive | E. Leading | F. Monitoring

F. Monitoring

62. In Earned Value Management Technique, you can compute the Estimate At Completion (EAC) by applying which of following formula? (Notes: BAC: Budget At Completion) | A. EAC = BAC + CPI | B. EAC = BAC/CPI | C. EAC = BAC - SPI | D. EAC = BAC * CPI

B. EAC = BAC/CPI

63. When you and your team know that a positive risk has a high likelihood of occurring and it will be very beneficial if it does | A. You should not document the risk as it will not impact badly to your project | B. You should develop a contingency plan and ask your management for contingency reserve. | C. You should transfer the risk to the vendor owned by your friend so he/she can earn the benefit | D. You should develop the mitigation plan to reduce the probability of the risk happen.

B. You should develop a contingency plan and ask your management for contingency reserve.

64. True or False. The S-Curve depicts the relationship between the cost baseline budget and the schedule because it shows the planned cost baseline budget across the planned project timeline. | A. True | B. False

A. True

65. True or False: Risk management is one-time process. You need to plan for all possible risks at the project beginning and then follow defined actions to control those risks until they are closed or cancelled | A. False | B. True

A. False

66. True or False: Your role as the project manager during quality assurance is to implement the quality management plan using the appropriate tools and techniques, in order to ensure that work is being performed according to required quality standards | A. False | B. True

B. True

67. You have finished planning and have begun executing the project when the client asks if you would add some important features to the product of the project. How are the triple constraints affected? | A. Time and cost may both be affected | B. Scope and quality would be affected but not cost | C. Cost must remain constant because resources are limited | D. Adding features will require additional cost but not time.

A. Time and cost may both be affected

68. Your stakeholder register should not contain: | A. Identification information | B. Assessment information | C. Stakeholder classification | D. Scope information

D. Scope information

69. Operational work is different from project work in that operational work is: | A. Unique | B. Temporary | C. Ongoing and repetitive. | D. A part of every project activity

C. Ongoing and repetitive.

70. Which one of these most correctly defines management reserve? | A. Per our lesson, management reserve and contingency are exactly the same. | B. Management reserve is not tied to specific work packages it is for the entire project | C. Management reserve is tied to specific work packages. | D. Management reserve is tied to a specific milestone or event.

B. Management reserve is not tied to specific work packages it is for the entire project

71. As discussed in the Project Management course, The PMBOK® Guide describes 10 Project Management Knowledge Areas. Identify 3 out of the 10 | A. Stakeholder, Communication, Human Resource | B. Stakeholder, Vendor, Customer | C. Risk, Human Resource, Vendor | D. Procurement, Communication, Customer

A. Stakeholder, Communication, Human Resource

72. True or False: Authority means you have the right to apply resources, make decisions and give approvals. | A. False | B. True

B. True

73. True or False: The critical path is the shortest path through the network and represents the work that can be delayed without delaying the end of the project. | A. False | B. True

A. False

74. Which of the following best describes the project manager's role as an integrator? | A. Help team members become familiar with the project | B. Put all the pieces of a project into a cohesive whole | C. Put all the pieces of a project into a program | D. Get all team members together into a cohesive whole

B. Put all the pieces of a project into a cohesive whole

75. True or False: Performance reporting aims to inform stakeholders how resources are being used to achieve the project's objectives. | A. True | B. False

A. True

76. Which one of these is not the approaches to conflict discussed in the Project Human Resources Management Lesson? | A. Confronting | B. Compromising | C. Smoothing | D. Forcing | E. Avoiding | F. Uninteresting

F. Uninteresting

77. True or False: If "develop online modules" needs to begin before "review online modules" can begin, that is called a start to start relationship. | A. True | B. False

A. True

78. True or False: Using top-down estimating techniques when the detail is available and the accuracy is needed. | A. True | B. False

B. False

79. Considering a situation in which you need to share an important announcement with your project team. Select the best communication option for the scenario: | A. Send them an instant message with the high-level details of the announcement | B. Invite them to a quick meeting to share the announcement and then follow-up. | C. Send a detailed email with tracking turned on so that you know who opened the email and who did not | D. Create a poster which describes the announcement and hang a copy of two in the areas most frequented by your team members.

B. Invite them to a quick meeting to share the announcement and then follow-up.

80. You just came from a meeting with one of your project stakeholders, he knew well about your project and also its potential impacts, and actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. How would you classify him? | A. Supportive | B. Neutral | C. Unaware | D. Leading

D. Leading

81. Which of the following is NOT the disadvantages of top-down estimating? | A. Costly to create | B. Less accurate | C. Requires considerable experience to do well | D. Does not take into account the differences between projects

A. Costly to create

82. AS you plan your project, the sponsor informed you that all team members will be assigned to your project for at most 50% of their available time. This is an example of. | A. Poor planning. | B. Wishful thinking | C. A project demand | D. A constraint

D. A constraint

83. Should the Project Scope Statement document include? | A. Acceptance criteria | B. Milestones | C. WBS (Work Breakdown Structure) | D. WBS Dictionary

A. Acceptance criteria

84. When you have good historical information which can be used in a reliable formula or model, you will probably use: | A. Parametric estimating | B. Exact estimating | C. Analogous estimating | D. Bottoms up estimating

A. Parametric estimating

85. To calculate late finish (LF) of an activity which has only one successor, you will | A. Take the late start of its immediate successor. | B. Take the early start of its immediate successor | C. Take the late finish of its immediate successor | D. Take the early finish of its immediate successor

A. Take the late start of its immediate successor.

86. Your Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is greater than 1 means you are. | A. on schedule. | B. behind schedule. | C. ahead of schedule.

C. ahead of schedule.

87. Which process group focuses on completing the requirements of the project | A. Initiating | B. Planning | C. Executing | D. Monitoring and controlling | E. Closing

C. Executing

88. True or False: The worst organization to use to run a project will always be the functional organization. | A. True | B. False

B. False

89. Which of the following is true about the development of a project charter? | A. The sponsor creates the project charter, and the project manager approves it | B. The project team creates the project charter, and the PMO (Project Management Office) approves it | C. The executive manager creates the project charter, and the functional manager approves it | D. The project manager creates the project charter, and the sponsor approves it

D. The project manager creates the project charter, and the sponsor approves it

90. When you use the RACI or Responsible, Accountable, Consult, Inform version of the RAM, those consulted persons are. | A. Providing subject matter expertise | B. Making the final decision | C. Being kept updated about project progress. | D. Completing the work

A. Providing subject matter expertise

91. Which of the following is NOT the output of Plan Scope Management process? (Choose 2 answers) | A. Scope Management Plan | B. Requirement Management Plan | C. Quality Management Plan | D. Time Management Plan

C. Quality Management Plan / D. Time Management Plan

92. True or False: Project Cost Management processes aim to help the project can be completed within the approved budget. | A. True | B. False

A. True

93. True or False: Effective project communication management creates a bridge between stakeholders based on a shared understanding of the project and the ongoing sharing of information needed for success. | A. True | B. False

A. True

94. Different estimating techniques serve different purpose, which of the following statements are correct (choose 2 answers)? | A. When activity duration or resource quantities are uncertain, use top-down estimating techniques. | B. When detail is available and accuracy is needed, use bottom-up estimating techniques. | C. When activity duration or resource quantities are uncertain, use bottom-up estimating techniques | D. When detail is available and accuracy is needed, use top-down estimating techniques.

A. When activity duration or resource quantities are uncertain, use top-down estimating techniques. / B. When detail is available and accuracy is needed, use bottom-up estimating techniques.

95. True or False: The Backward Pass is used through the activities to determine the critical path & available float of the project | A. True | B. False

A. True

96. All the following are characteristics of a project EXCEPT: | A. It is temporary | B. It has a definite beginning and end | C. It has interrelated activities | D. It repeats itself every month

D. It repeats itself every month

97. In a functional organization: | A. Team members are never assigned to the project full time. | B. A project manager is not assigned to the team. | C. The project manager acts as manager of the team. | D. The functional manager has stronger power than the project manager's power.

D. The functional manager has stronger power than the project manager's power.

98. You have finished planning and have begun executing the project when the client asks if you would shorten the project duration so that the project can finish 2 weeks earlier than the original plan. How are the triple constraints affected? | A. Scope and cost may both be affected | B. Neither scope nor cost will be affected in any situation | C. Cost will reduce as the project duration is shortened and scope is not changed | D. There is no relevant option except the project must be cut down on scope

A. Scope and cost may both be affected

99. An output of the Close Project or Close Phase process is the creation of: | A. Project archives | B. A project charter | C. A project management plan | D. A risk management plan | E. A communication plan

A. Project archives

100. As discussed in the Project Management course, The PMBOK® Guide knowledge area that has processes in all 5 process groups is: | A. Project Integration Management | B. Project Cost Management | C. Project Scope Management | D. Project Time Management | E. Project Quality Management

A. Project Integration Management