Module 1 VF Practice questions

In a densely populated urban area of Montana, Dr. Maria, a public health veterinarian, receives reports of an increasing number of people presenting with flu-like symptoms, including fever, cough, and shortness of breath.

What term best describes the rapid spread of a new disease within the human population of this geographic area?

A : Endemic

B : Epidemic

C : Epizootic

D : Pandemic

E : Zoonotic

B. Epidemic

What are the key international agencies that have formulated a structure for the global implementation of the One Health concept?

Here are acronyms for the abbreviations below:

World Health Organization (WHO), United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), Centers for Disease Control & prevention (CDC), Food & Agriculture Organization (FAO), United States Department of Agriculture (USDA), World Organization for Animal Health (WOAH) and Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

A : WHO, UNEP, CDC and FAO

B : WHO, WOAH ,UNEP and FAO

C : WOAH, FAO, UNEP and USDA

D : CDC, WHO, USDA and FAO

E : WOAH, EPA, USDA and FAO

B. WHO, WOAH, UNEP, and FAO are the 4 agencies that form the quadripartite

The agent of Lyme disease, Borrelia burgdorferi is a vector transmitted agent that infects people and animals??

What is the vector for Borrelia burgdorferi?

A : Midges

B : Ticks

C : Flea

D : Lice

E : Mosquito

B. Ticks are vectors for Lyme disease

Lyme disease is a key vector borne disease in people and animals, that is of public health importance.

What is the best way to prevent the spread of Lyme disease in humans and animals?

A : Avoid contact with wild animals

B : Wash your hands frequently

C : Keep your pets indoors at all times

D : Use agency approved acaricides

E : Mosquito controls

D. Use agency controlled acaricides

Using acaricides are the best method of prevention both on pets and the environment

West Nile virus is a zoonotic pathogen that can cause disease in various species of birds, horses, and humans.

What is the principal route of transmission of West Nile virus in birds?

A : Airborne by inhalation of aerosols

B : Bite of infected mosquitoes

C : Direct contact with infected birds.

D : Fomites such as boots of workers.

E : Ingestion of contaminated feeds/water.

B: Bite of infected mosquitoes

WNV is predominantly transmitted by mosquito bites. Other transmission routes such as direct contact between infected and susceptible birds, ingestion of contaminated feeds/water are very rare. The virus has not been shown to be transmitted via airborne route or fomites.

An outbreak of salmonellosis is reported in puppies in an animal shelter.

What is the portal of exit and portal of entry for salmonella organisms?

A : Faecal excretion and oral ingestion

B : Milk secretion and oral ingestion

C : Faecal excretion and inhalation of aerosols.

D : Respiratory secretions and inhalation

E : Urine excretion and direct contact

A : Faecal excretion and oral ingestion

Salmonella resides in the gastrointestinal tract of animals and it is excreted via faeces and enters the body via the oral route/ingestion.

There is an outbreak of salmonellosis in puppies in an animal shelter. Some puppies have developed acute diarrhea with septicemia. The source of infection is the arrival of two new puppies.

Considering what you've learned about the chain of infection of salmonella, what is the best measure to control spread within the shelter?

A : Euthanize sick dogs and administer antibiotics to dogs without symptoms.

B : Isolate and treat sick dogs and ensure the dogs are in a well-ventilated place.

C : Isolate and treat sick dogs and protect feed/water from fecal contamination.

D : Discard any existing dog food and provide new batch of dog food to the dogs.

E : Immediately inform the State or Federal veterinarian to control the outbreak.

C : Isolate and treat sick dogs and protect feed/water from fecal contamination.

Salmonella is transmitted by the fecal-oral route by ingesting contaminated feed/water or contact with infected animals or the environment, hence it can be prevented by isolation of sick animals, protecting food/water from contamination and other hygiene practices.

Several countries have preparedness plans to prevent and control Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza viruses. One of the preventive measures is to implement strict external and internal biosecurity measures.

What is the main purpose of external farm biosecurity?

A : Disease eradication

B : Disease control

C : Disease surveillance

D : Disease monitoring

External farm biosecurity prevents contact between domestic birds and infected wild birds, it prevents introduction via fomites (vehicles, humans).

Livestock live-birthing exhibits are popular with the public. Persons attending these exhibits can be exposed to various diseases. A recent fair in state X prohibited direct contact with animals or birthing products in the birthing exhibits but some attendants become ill with a febrile illness.

What is the most likely cause and how did the people become infected?

A : Brucella that was most likely transmitted by drinking contaminated milk.

B : Chlamydia that was most likely transmitted by inhalation of aerosols from birth products.

C : Coxiella that was most likely transmitted by inhalation of aerosols from birth products.

D : Listeria was most likely transmitted by drinking contaminated milk.

C : Coxiella that was most likely transmitted by inhalation of aerosols from birth products.

Agricultural fairs are popular with the public and allow the public to interact with animals. However, it also presents opportunities for exposure to zoonotic pathogens. Cryptosporidium parvum is a protozoal agent that can cause diarrhea in animals such as cattle especially calves and humans.

What is the best way to prevent spread to persons attending fairs?

A : Drinking water that has been treated with chlorine.

B : Hand washing and avoiding placing hands on the mouth

C : Prophylactic treatment of calves to be exhibited

D : Vaccinating livestock that are to be exhibited.

B : Hand washing and avoiding placing hands on the mouth

What region of the body is called the croup/rump?

A : The most backward part along the back, at the pelvic bone

B : The most forward part along the back, just behind the neck

C : The most backward part of the head.

D : The top part of the neck just before the thorax.

A : The most backward part along the back, at the pelvic bone

The croup/rump/hip is the area at the level of the pelvic bone. It is located behind the loin and before the tail. It is well rounded in some animals while flat or even sunken in weakened animals. Please note that the loin is more backward part of the back.

Which part is related to an appendage?

A : Flank

B : Hip

C : Flews

D : Brachium

D : Brachium

The term "Pes" is used for which specific part of the animal body?

A : The upper part of the forelimb

B : The upper part of the hindlimb

C : The lower part of the hindlimb

D : The lower part of the forelimb.

C : The lower part of the hindlimb

When compared to radio waves, do x-rays have a shorter or longer wavelength?

x-rays have a shorter wavelength than radio waves

Which type of electromagnetic radiation has less energy?

A : X- Rays

B : Visible light

B. Visible light

energy increases from right to left. wavelength increases from left to right. visible light is to the right of x-rays on the scale

What property do x-rays have that make them dangerous to cells?

ionization

The intensity of an x-ray beam decreases with increasing distance.

A : True

B : False

A : True

Personal protective equipment (PPE), used in diagnostic imagining, will protect users from primary radiation exposure.

A : True

B : False

B : False

PPE will protect you from scatter radiation, but will not protect you from primary radiation

What component of the blood is considered a cell fragment?

A : Platelet

B : Leukocyte

C : Erythrocyte

D : Plasma

A : Platelet

Platelets are not cells. Platelets are fragments of cells coming from the bone marrow via the segmentation of progenitor cells.

What chamber of the heart receives the venous return from the systemic circulation?

A : Right Atrium

B : Left Atrium

C : Right Ventricle

D : Left Ventricle

A : Right Atrium

The right atrium receives the venous return (deoxygenated) from the systemic circulation. The left atrium receives the venous return (oxygenated blood) from the lungs. The left ventricle propels the blood in systole to the systemic circulation, and the right ventricle propels the blood in systole to the lungs.

What is the definition of absorption?

A : Movement of material or substances from the lumen of an organ to the extracellular fluid.

B : Movement of material or substances from the blood to the lumen of an organ.

C : Passage through a filter that prevents passage of certain molecules, particles, or substances.

D : The uptake of extracellular fluids and dissolved solutes, such as fat droplets, vitamins, and antigens into the cell.

E : The movement of materials from within the cell into the extracellular fluid.

A : Movement of material or substances from the lumen of an organ to the extracellular fluid.

What is the pathway's name that conveys the electrical impulses toward the central nervous system?

A : Sensory

B : Motor

C : Integrative

D : Associative

A : Sensory

The sensory nerve cells include the afferent neurons that conduct the electrical signal from the sensory receptors to the central nervous system. Integrative neurons (interneurons) lead to the integration and modulation of electrical signals within the central nervous system. Some of them can participate in associative pathways, particularly in the brain. The motor nerve cells include efferent neurons that conduct the electrical signals from the central nervous system to target cells in the body, including skeletal and smooth muscle cells.

What is homeostasis?

A : 1. It is the maintenance of a relatively constant internal environment.

B : 2. It is the range of variation of a specific biological variable.

C : 3. It is a group of positive feedback loop mechanisms.

D : 4. It is the ability of the body's organs and systems to achieve a healthy equilibrium.

A : 1. It is the maintenance of a relatively constant internal environment.

Which cell organelle is responsible for concentration and packaging of the secretory materials?

A : Golgi complex

B : Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

C : Rough endoplasmic reticulum

D : Mitochondria

A. The Golgi apparatus is the site of chemical modification of proteins; sorting and packaging of molecules for secretion or transport to other organelles.

What are the components of the cell membrane?

A : Phospholipid monolayer, cholesterol, and carbohydrates.

B : Phospholipids bilayer, integral proteins, and nucleic acids.

C : Phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins and carbohydrates.

D : Phospholipids monolayer, carbohydrates, and histone.

E : Integral proteins, cholesterol, and enzymes.

C : Phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins and carbohydrates.

What are the basic tissues of the body?

A : Epithelium, connective tissue, muscular tissue and nervous tissue

B : Bone, cartilage, muscular tissue and nervous tissue

C : Connective tissue, muscular tissue, nervous tissue and lymphatic tissue

D : Epithelium, blood, lymphatic tissue and nervous tissue

A : Epithelium, connective tissue, muscular tissue and nervous tissue

The basement membrane is composed of what structures?

A : Lamina lucida and Lamina densa

B : Basal lamina and reticular lamina

C : Lamina lucida and reticular lamina

D : Lamina densa and reticular lamina

B : Basal lamina and reticular lamina

The basal lamina (lamina lucida and lamina densa) and reticular lamina are the components of the basement membrane

Which type of epithelial cell is present in kidney tubules?

A : Simple cuboidal epithelium

B : Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

C : Simple columnar epithelium

D : A collage of different types of tissue Description automatically generated MC

E : Simple squamous epithelium

A : Simple cuboidal epithelium

Which cells have potential to differentiate into any other type of connective tissue cells?

A : Mesenchymal cells

B : Mast cells

C : Plasma cells

D : Macrophages

A : Mesenchymal cells

Mesenchymal cells are the precursor from which other cells can differentiate. This is the correct response.

What type of fibers predominantly constitute the framework of lymphatic organs?

A : Elastic fibers

B : Reticular fibers

C : Collagen fibers

B : Reticular fibers

Reticular fibers are the main structural component of reticular connective tissue, the framework of lymphatic organs.

Perichondrium is poorly developed in which type of cartilage?

A : Hyaline cartilage

B : Elastic cartilage

C : Fibrocartilage

C : Fibrocartilage

The cytoplasmic process of which cells shrink to form lacuna?

A : Chondrocytes

B : Chondroblasts

C : Pericytes

D : Plasma cells

A : Chondrocytes

The cytoplasmic processes of chondrocytes shrink during histological processing.

What part of the body contains elastic cartilage?

A : Femur

B : Trachea

C : Skull

D : Epiglottis

E : Uterus

D : Epiglottis

Which muscle is striated and have centrally placed nucleus?

A : Cardiac muscle

B : Skeletal muscles

C : Smooth muscles

A : Cardiac muscle

Cardiac myofibers are striated and the nuclei are located centrally within the myofiber.

Which muscle is nonstriated and have centrally placed nucleus?

A : Cardiac muscle

B : Skeletal muscles

C : Smooth muscles

C : Smooth muscles

Which fluid is present between the meninges of the brain?

A : Peritoneal fluid

B : Pericardial fluid

C : Cerebrospinal fluid

D : Lymphatic fluid

C : Cerebrospinal fluid

What substance is transported down its concentration gradient by simple diffusion?

A : Oxygen

B : Glucose

C : Sodium

D : Potassium

E : Calcium

A : Oxygen

oxygen is a lipid-soluble gas that crosses the cell membrane bilayer without significant resistance. Glucose needs a transporter (transmembrane protein) to cross the cell membrane. The three cations are hydrophilic and electrically charged. Therefore, they need ion channels to cross the cell membrane.

What neurotransmitter exerts inhibitory functions in the spinal cord?

A : Acetylcholine

B : Norepinephrine

C : Dopamine

D : Glycine

E : Glutamate

D : Glycine

Acetylcholine and norepinephrine exert excitatory functions in the central nervous system. Norepinephrine exerts excitatory functions in the central nervous system. Glutamate is the principal excitatory neurotransmitter. Glycine is a typical inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord. Dopamine can exert both excitatory and inhibitory functions in the central nervous system.

What receptor is linked to the generation of second messenger, cAMP?

A : Ligand-gated ionic channels

B : Gs-protein coupled receptor

C : Tyrosine kinase receptor

D : Nuclear receptor

B : Gs-protein coupled receptor

Gs-protein coupled receptor activates adenylyl cyclase and generates cAMP. Ligand gated relates to ion influx, tyrosine kinase receptor enhances phosphorylation of proteins and nuclear receptor activates new protein synthesis.

What is the role of a partial agonist?

A : Produces partial response even all the receptors are occupied

B : Produces maximal response when all the receptors are occupied

C : Produces opposite response by occupying the receptors l

D : Blocks the response of physiological ligand

A : Produces partial response even all the receptors are occupied

Partial agonist occupies all the receptors but only produces partial response, whereas full agonist produces maximal response and inverse agonist produces opposite pharmacological effect. Antagonist blocks the response of a physiological ligand.

What is the effect of a higher sympathetic innervation outflow?

A : A. Release of epinephrine from adrenal medulla

B : B. Increase in digestive tract motility

C : C. Decrease in strength of heart contractions

D : D. Increases strength of contractions in uterine wall

E : E. Decrease in frequency of heart contractions

A : A. Release of epinephrine from adrenal medulla

An increase in sympathetic innervation outflow will result in the increased release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla in the adrenal gland. This will lead to an increase in heart rate and the strength of heart contractions, and a decrease in the gastrointestinal tract's functions. Additionally, the urinary bladder wall will relax to promote urinary bladder filling.

What is the toxic effect of botulinum toxin on the neurotransmitter release?

A : Reduces acetylcholine release

B : Increases acetylcholine release

C : Reduces norepinephrine release

D : Increases norepinephrine release

A : Reduces acetylcholine release

Botulinum toxin hydrolyses snare complex protein associated with exocytosis of acetylcholine into the synapse. Hence, acetylcholine level at the synapse gets reduced resulting in muscle weaknes

What term refers to the constant occurrence of disease in a population?

A. epidemic/epizootic

B. Pandemic/panzootic

C. Sporadic

D. endemic/enzootic

D. endemic/enzootic

A widespread epidemic involving more than one country is referred to as a?

A. epidemic/epizootic

B. Pandemic/panzootic

C. Sporadic

D. endemic/enzootic

B. Pandemic/Panzootic

A disease that occurs without regularity is referred to as a what?

A. Pandemic/panzootic

B. Sporadic

C. endemic/enzootic

B. Sporadic disease

could also be an epidemic if the disease is not endemic to that area

Which 3 veterinary-related regulations is the FDA responsible for?

A. meat and poultry inspections, egg products, and food defense

B. seafood inspection/shell eggs/milk inspection, residues, and pet food inspections

C. vaccines, plants, animals

B. seafood inspection/shell eggs/milk inspection, residues, and pet food inspections

What US agency is responsible for setting the tolerances for antimicrobial residues in food animals?

A. FDA

B. USDA-FSIS

C. USDA-APHIS

D. WHO

A. FDA

What is the role of the veterinarian in the implementation of the one health concept? choose the most correct

A. to oversee wellbeing of animals and their environment

B. to regulate food animals

C. To collaborate with officials in human, animal and environmental health

D. to work with scientists and human doctors

C. To collaborate with officials in human, animal and environmental health

Why is it of public health importance to report zoonoses to the relevant authorities?

A. to notify agencies, to monitor disease spread

B. to prevent the spread of disease in humans and animals

C. to document disease prevalence

B. to prevent the spread of disease in humans and animals

What 2 departmental agencies is the veterinarian required to report diseases in the USA if they suspect zoonotic disease in animals?

A. CDC, WHO

B. FDA, USDA-FSIS

C. SAHO, USDA-APHIS

D. SAHO, USDA-FSIS

C. SAHO, USDA-APHIS

A 6-week-old puppy presents with a productive cough, fever, nasal discharge & and depression. The attending Veterinarian makes a diagnosis of a respiratory disease that can spread rapidly among dogs housed together. What is the most appropriate recommendation to minimize spread to other dogs in the same household/kennel?

A. Give antibiotics to other dogs in the household/kennel

B. immediately vaccinate the puppy

C. isolate the puppy from the other dogs

D. no precautions are indicated

C. isolate the puppy from the other dogs

During what seasons are HPAI detections high?

A. Spring/Summer

B. Fall/winter

C. summer/winter

D. fall/spring

D. fall/spring

What specimens should be collected from live and dead birds presumed to have HPAI?

A. brain tissues from dead birds

B. whole blood from live birds

C. Liver, intestines, and splenic tissues from dead birds

D. Cloacal and oropharyngeal swabs

E. Tracheal swabs

F. all but A

F. all but A

A backyard poultry flock is evaluated for depression, severe respiratory and GIT signs & sudden deaths. The birds are kept in a semi-open enclosure and wild birds have access to the poultry area. The attending vet suspects HPAI, what action should the vet take FIRST?

A. administer broad-spectrum antibiotics in drinking water

B. administer antiviral drugs

C. advise owner to slaughter birds with clinical signs

D. immediately report disease to state vet (SAHO)

E. quarantine the flock and restrict movement of poultry

D. immediately report disease to state vet (SAHO)

What PPE are required for removal of raccoon latrines?

A. Gloves

B. boots

C. N-95 mask

D. all of the above

D. all of the above

What is the occiput/poll?

A point along the dorsal midline located...

A. between ears/horns

B. between the eyes

C. between the forelimbs

D. between the nostrils

A. between ears/horns

What is the stop?

A point along the dorsal midline located...

A. between ears/horns

B. between the eyes

C. between the forelimbs

D. between the nostrils

B. between the eyes

What is the brisket?

A point along the ventral midline located...

A. between ears/horns

B. between the eyes

C. between the forelimbs

D. between the nostrils

C. between the forelimbs

What region of the abdomen is located just caudal to the sternum?

A. Umbilocal region

B. Xiphoid region

C. Pubic region

D. Lateral abdominal region

B. Xiphoid region

What region of the abdomen are most surgical procedures done in small animals?

A. Lateral abdominal region

B. inguinal region

C. Pubic region

D. Umbilical region

D. Umbilical region

Braking radiation is referred to as what?

A. point of direct beam

B. scattered ions

C. generation of photon at point of directional change of electron

C. generation of photon at point of directional change of electron

In order to get a more dense image on x-ray, we should

A. increase kVp

B. decrease kVp

C. increase mAs

D. decrease mAs

C. increase mAs

In order to get a more contrasted image on x-ray, we should

A. increase kVp

B. decrease kVp

C. increase mAs

D. decrease mAs

B. decrease kVp

mAs involves what?

A. quantity=density

B. quality=contrast

C. quantity=contrast

D. quality=density

A. quantity=density

kVp involves what?

A. quantity=density

B. quality=contrast

C. quantity=contrast

D. quality=density

B. quality=contrast

What component of the blood provides most of the clotting factors in hemostasis?

A. erythrocytes

B. lymphocytes

C. monocytes

D. plasma

E. platelets

D. plasma

What are the most abundant proteins in the plasma?

A. water

B. fibrinogen

C. globulins

D. Albumins

D. Albumins

Where are plasma proteins derived from?

A. small intestines

B. bile ducts

C. pancreas

D. liver

E. spleen

D. liver

These leukocytes appear:

small, pink granules containing lysozymes, are phagocytic, and have low affinity for blue complexes. They are 1st defense for destroying bacteria

A. basophils

B. eosinophils

C. monocytes

D. neutrophils

D. neutrophils

These leukocytes appear:

dark purple granules, containing histamine and bradykinin, and have strong affinity for blue complexes.

They are involved in inflammatory responses and allergies

A. basophils

B. eosinophils

C. monocytes

D. neutrophils

A. basophils

These leukocytes appear:

puffy orange granules, binding to eosin

contain histaminases and bradykinin.

They are involved in the immune response against helminths and allergies

A. basophils

B. eosinophils

C. monocytes

D. neutrophils

B. eosinophils

These leukocytes appear:

mono nucleated round nuclei, smooth dense chromatin, small rim of light blue cytoplasm

They are involved in cytotoxic immune response, and antibody immune response

A. lymphocytes

B. leukocytes

C. monocytes

D. neutrophils

A. lymphocytes

These leukocytes appear:

mono nucleated, large with no distinct shape. They form macrophages

A. lymphocytes

B. leukocytes

C. monocytes

D. neutrophils

C. monocytes

What blood cells differentiate into macrophages in the tissues?

A. neutrophils

B. eosinophils

C. basophils

D. lymphocytes

E. monocytes

E. monocytes

What is the order of systemic blood flow through the heart?

A. cranial/caudal vena cava->left atrium->tricuspid valve->left ventricle->pulmonary artery->lungs->pulmonary vein->right atrium->bicuspid valve->right ventricle->aortic valve->dorsal aorta

B. cranial/caudal vena cava->right atrium->tricuspid valve->right ventricle->pulmonary valve->pulmonary artery->lungs->pulmonary vein->left atrium->bicuspid valve->left ventricle->aortic valve->dorsal aorta

C. cranial/caudal vena cava->right atrium->bicuspid valve->right ventricle->pulmonary valve->pulmonary artery->lungs->pulmonary vein->left atrium->tricuspid valve->left ventricle->aortic valve->dorsal aorta

B. cranial/caudal vena cava->right atrium->tricuspid valve->right ventricle->pulmonary valve->pulmonary artery->lungs->pulmonary vein->left atrium->bicuspid valve->left ventricle->aortic valve->dorsal aorta

What heart structure receives the pulmonary venous return?

A. RV

B. LV

C. RA

D. LA

E. LCA

D. LA

Where does the heart rhythm originate?

A. Sinoatrial node

B. atrioventricular node

C. bundle of His

D. bundle branches

E. Purkinje fibers

A. Sinoatrial node

Why does the obstruction of the airway make a noise?

A. laminar airflow

B. turbulent airflow

C. low airflow resistance

D. limited airflow

B. turbulent airflow

What type of hormone targets cell membrane receptors?

A. lipid-soluble

B. water-soluble

B. water-soluble

Luminal digestion involves what parts of the body?

A. mouth/esophagus

B. small/large intestines

C. pancreas/stomach

C. pancreas/stomach

Brush order digestion involves what parts of the body?

A. mouth/esophagus

B. small intestines

C. pancreas/stomach

B. small intestines

What is the most common gastrointestinal tract disorder in dogs?

A. regurgitation

B. vomiting

C. stomach foreign bodies

D. diarrhea

E. periodontal disease

E. periodontal disease

What is the direction of the reabsorption in the renal system?

A. Bloodstream to tubular lumen

B. urethral lumen to the outside of the body

C. urinary bladder lumen to the bloodstream

D. tubular lumen to the bloodstream

E. bloodstream to the bowman's capsule

D. tubular lumen to the bloodstream

What is the direction of the secretion in the renal system?

A. Bloodstream to tubular lumen

B. urethral lumen to the outside of the body

C. urinary bladder lumen to the bloodstream

D. tubular lumen to the bloodstream

E. bloodstream to the bowman's capsule

A. Bloodstream to tubular lumen

What is the direction of the filtration in the renal system?

A. Bloodstream to tubular lumen

B. urethral lumen to the outside of the body

C. urinary bladder lumen to the bloodstream

D. tubular lumen to the bloodstream

E. bloodstream to the bowman's capsule

E. bloodstream to the bowman's capsule

What function is specific to the renal system compared to the gastrointestinal system?

A. secretion

B. filtration

C. reabsorption

D. excretion

B. filtration

What hormones is a female sexual steroid hormone?

A. testosterone

B. insulin

C. cortisol

D. estrogen

D. estrogen

What ovarian cells are related to the production of progesterone?

A. follicular cells

B. leydig cells

C. luteal cells

D. vaginal cells

E. endocrine cells

C. luteal cells

What is the final target organ of the negative feedback mechanism of steroid hormones?

A. testicles

B. ovaries

C. lungs

D. hypothalamus

E. kidneys

D. hypothalamus

What two cells in the growing ovarian follicles act together to produce estrogens?

A. theca externa and granulosa cells

B. theca interna and granulosa cells

C. the oocyte and granulosa cells

D. the oocyte and theca interna cells

B. theca interna and granulosa cells

What is the function of joints?

A. allow the generation of force

B. functional link between bones

C. serve as a site of attachment for muscles

D. connect bone to muscle

B. functional link between bones

What is the function of tendons?

A. allow the generation of force

B. functional link between bones

C. serve as a site of attachment for muscles

D. connect bone to muscle

A. allow the generation of force

and

D. connect bone to muscle

What germ layer of the embryo generates the nervous system?

A. mesoderm

B. endoderm

C. ectoderm

C. ectoderm

What germ layer of the embryo generates the GI and internal organs?

A. mesoderm

B. endoderm

C. ectoderm

B. endoderm

What germ layer of the embryo generates the skeletal and muscular and connective tissues?

A. mesoderm

B. endoderm

C. ectoderm

A. mesoderm

What forebrain structure is responsible to process voluntary actions?

A. hippocampus

B. Amigdala

C. hypothalamus

D. thalamus

E. cerebrum

E. cerebrum

What forebrain structure is responsible to process endocrine actions?

A. hippocampus

B. Amigdala

C. hypothalamus

D. thalamus

E. cerebrum

C. hypothalamus

What forebrain structure is responsible to process sensory actions?

A. hippocampus

B. Amigdala

C. hypothalamus

D. thalamus

E. cerebrum

D. thalamus

What forebrain structure is responsible to process emotions and memories?

A. hippocampus and Amigdala

B. hypothalamus

C. thalamus

D. cerebrum

A. hippocampus and Amigdala

Where does the cerebrospinal fluid form?

A. White matter

B. Grey matter

C. Dura mater

D. cerebral cortex

E. choroids plexuses

E. choroids plexuses