Immunology SOLO 2

What are some preanalytical variables that could affect the results of lab testing in the immunology department?

• specimen type

• delayed testing

• excessive heat

• bacterial contamination

• stron acid/base solutions

• hemolysis, lipemia, icterus

• complement inactivation

Identify the type of pipette

graduated

Identify the type of pipette

Serologic

Identify the type of pipette

Ostwald

Identify the type of pipette

Volumetric

Identify the type of pipette

Automatic micropipette

Antibody titer

refers to the concentration of an antibody

acute phase specimen

serum from one with a current infection for which bacterial or viral specific immunoglobulins are measured

convalescent phase specimen

serum from one who has recovered from an infectious disease and considered to be especially rich in antibodies against the infectious agent

How can a current infection be revealed through analyzing acute phase and convalescent phase specimens of a patient?

• increase in patients antibody titer of two doubling dilutions (four fold) OR

• an acute of 1:8 and convalescent of 1:32

Precipitation

combination of soluble antigen with antibody to produce a visible insoluble complex

agglutination

specific insoluble antigens aggregate to form larger visible clumps when the corresponding specific antibody is present in the serum

Name the technique

Single/ radial immunodiffusion

Name the technique

Double immunodiffusion or Ouchterlony

This is a reaction of:

Identity

This is a reaction of:

non-identity

This is a reaction of:

partial identity

inhibition agglutination

• detects patient antigen

• the blocking of agglutination is the principle of the test

Reverse passive agglutination

• detects antigen (CRP, fibrinogen)

• antibody is attached to a carrier particle

direct bacterial agglutination

• detects patient antibody

• antigen is naturally on the particle itself

• the binding of patient antibody to antigen in a bacterial suspension causes the bacteria to clump togenther in visible aggregates

passive agglutination

• detects patient antibody

• a carrier such as RBCs is used to adsorb soluble antigen onto their surfaces

• the RBCs then agglutinate in the prescence of antiserum specific for the adsorbed antigen

What are the two phases of hemagglutination?

1. sensitization

2. lattice formation

Sensitization

physical attachment of antibody molecules to antigens on erythrocytes

Lattice formation

occurs when antigen particles and antibodies crosslink to form bridges

What are some ways to reduce the zeta potential in hemagglutination reactions?

• centrifugation

• enzyme pretreatment of RBCs

• addistion of colloids

What is the purpose of using anti-human globulin in hemagglutination reactions, such as the direct antiglobulin test?

AHG froms crosslinks between antibodies that are bound to antigens on a carrier surface to make the reaction visible

Which region of MHC fenes codes for some of the complement components and cytokines?

Class III

Which region of MHC genes control HLA-A,B,C antigens found on most nucleated cells, which function to present endogenous antigen to CD8 lymphocytes?

Class I

Which region of MHC genes code for DP, DQ, and DR antigen expressed primarily on B cells, macrophages, other antigen presenting cells, and function to present exogenous antigen to CD4 lymphocytes?

Class II

HLA nomenclature “N”

• null allele

• non-function protein

HLA nomenclature “L”

lower than normal cell expression

HLA nomenclature “S”

soluble protein not found on cell surface

HLA nomenclature “Q”

• questionable

• allele may no affect normal expression

HLA nomenclature “C”

cytoplasmic protein not present on the cell surface

HLA nomenclature “A”

• aberrant expression

• uncertain if protein is expressed

HLA B27

Ankylosing spondylitis

HLA DQ2 and HLA B8

celiac disease

HLA DR2

Narcolepsy, Goodpasture’s syndrome and multiple sclerosis

What is the primary consideration in assessing whether an organ donor is acceptable for given patient?

HLA matching

Which tissue type is most and least immunogenic in transplants?

Bone marrow and cornea

What are some disease treatable by stem cell transplant?

• acute/chronic leukemias

• myelodysplastic syndromes

• stem cell disorders

• myeloproliferative disorders

• lymphoproliferative disorders

• phagocyte disorders

• platelet abnormalities

allograft

graft between genetically different recipient and donor of the same species

autograft

graft transferred from one position to another in the same individual

syngraft

graft transplanted between different bu identical recipient and donor

xenograft

graft between individuals of different species

Hyperacute graft rejection

• within minutes

• humoral mediated

• preformed cytotoxic antibodies to donor antigens

accelerated graft rejection

• 2-5 days

• cell mediated

• previous sensitzation to donor antigen

acute graft rejection

• 7-21 days

• cell mediated

• development of allogenic reaction to donor antigens

chronic graft rejection

• later than 3 months

• cell mediated

• disturbance of host-graft tolerance

What is graft vs host disease?

occurs when immunocompetent T lymphocytes are transfused from a donor to an immunodeficient recipient

What are the requirements to develop GVHD?

• source of immunocompetent lumphocytes

• human leukocyte antigen differences between patient and donor

• inability to reject donor cells

What is the most effective method of preventing GVHD for blood transfusion?

irradiating the blood components

What are the five categories of vaccines?

• live attenuated

• inactivated

• subunit, recombinant, polysaccharide, and conjugate

• toxoid substances

• nucleic acid

Subunit, recombinant, polysaccharide and conjugate vaccine treated diseases

• Haemophilus influenzae type B

• Hepatitis B

• HPV

• whooping cough

• pneumococcal disease

• meningococcal disease

• shingles

Live attenuated vaccine treated diseases

• measles

• mumps

• rubella

• rotavirus

• smallpox

• chickenpox

• yellow fever

inactivated vaccine treated diseases

• hepatitis A

• influenza

• polio

• rabies

toxoid vaccine treated diseases

• diphtheria

• tetanus

nucleic aicd vaccine treated diseases

SARS-CoV-2 virus

Which agency regulates vaccine products?

Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER)

What are three specific requirements that the FDA has for vaccines?

• produce protective immunity with only minimal side effects

• be immunogenic enough to produce a strong and measurable immune response

• be stable suring its shelf life with potency remaining at the proper level

What is Guillain-Barre syndrome?

• caused by surgery, infection, or immunization

• Disorder in which the body’s immune system attacks nerves

• myelin sheath becomes damaged and prevents nerves from transmitting signals to the brain, causing weakness, numbness, or paralysis

Serologic testing

an assay involvin serum constituents

immunologic testing

testing related to antigens and antibodies

HLA crossmatching methods

ELISA and flow cytometry

classic was complement dependent cytotoxicity

Preventative AIDS vaccine

HIV negative individuals to prevent HIV infection

Therapeutic AIDS vaccines

HIV positive individuals to improve the immune system

Pathogens adapted for biological warfare include:

• smallpox

• anthrax

• plague

• tularemia

• brucellosis

• Q fever

• botulinum toxin

• staphylococcal enterotoxin B