parasites exam 6

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110 Terms

1
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What is the Phylum Ciliophora known for?

A large and diverse group of protozoa characterized by the presence of cilia in at least one stage of their life cycle.

2
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What is the primary mode of motility for ciliates?

Ciliates move by means of cilia.

3
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How do most ciliates acquire food?

Most ciliates are phagotrophic and ingest food through a cytosome.

4
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What are the two types of nuclei present in ciliates?

Ciliates generally have a macronucleus and a micronucleus.

5
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What are the two forms of reproduction in ciliates?

Asexual reproduction through binary fission and sexual reproduction through conjugation.

6
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What is a trophozoite?

The growing and active stage of a ciliate.

7
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What is a cyst in the context of ciliates?

A dormant stage that is usually infective.

8
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Name an important ciliate that affects pigs and humans.

Balantidium coli.

9
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What is the life cycle transmission route for Balantidium coli?

Transmission occurs via the fecal/oral route through ingestion of cysts.

10
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What symptoms are associated with Balantidium coli infection?

Diarrhea, abdominal pain, and in rare cases, dysentery.

11
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What is Ichthyophthirius multifiliis commonly known as?

Ich or white spot disease.

12
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What is the primary host for Ichthyophthirius multifiliis?

Freshwater fish.

13
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What are the symptoms of Ichthyophthirius multifiliis infection?

Small, raised white lesions on skin, fins, and gill tissue.

14
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What is the primary pathogenic effect of Naegleria fowleri?

It causes primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM).

15
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How does Naegleria fowleri infect the host?

Trophozoites migrate up olfactory nerves to the brain.

16
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What is the life cycle of Entamoeba histolytica?

Involves cysts and trophozoites passed in feces, with mature cysts ingested leading to excystation.

17
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What is the diagnostic method for Entamoeba histolytica?

Demonstrating trophozoites or cysts in feces through examination of multiple samples.

18
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What is the significance of the cyst stage in amoebas?

Most amoebas have a resistant cyst stage that aids in transmission.

19
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What distinguishes Entamoeba coli from Entamoeba histolytica?

Entamoeba coli has mature cysts with 8 nuclei, while E. histolytica has 4 nuclei.

20
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What are opportunistic parasites?

Parasites that are normally free-living but become parasitic under certain conditions, often due to immunosuppression.

21
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What is the role of good hygienic practices in preventing Balantidium coli infections?

Good hygiene helps prevent fecal/oral transmission of cysts.

22
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What is the typical size of mature cysts of Entamoeba histolytica?

10 to 20 micrometers.

23
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What are the common methods for diagnosing amebiasis?

Finding cysts or trophozoites in feces and using ELISA or PCR for definitive diagnosis.

24
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What is the effect of Ichthyophthirius multifiliis on the fish industry?

It has a significant negative impact due to high mortality rates in affected fish.

25
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What is the characteristic appearance of trophozoites of Ichthyophthirius multifiliis?

They have a C-shaped macronucleus used for identification.

26
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What is the primary habitat for Naegleria fowleri?

Warm freshwater lakes, rivers, or heated swimming pools.

27
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What is the primary method of transmission for Entamoeba histolytica?

Transmission occurs through ingestion of cysts from contaminated food or water.

28
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What is the diagnostic form of Fowleri infection found in CSF?

Trophozoite

29
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Which organism is associated with keratitis and granulomatous amebic encephalitis (GAE)?

Acanthamoeba species

30
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What type of infection is more common in individuals with a compromised immune system?

Disseminated infection

31
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How can Acanthamoeba enter humans through the eye?

Causing severe keratitis

32
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What is the life cycle of Acanthamoeba species?

Cysts → Trophozoite → Mitosis

33
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What is Balamuthia mandrilaris originally isolated from?

The brain of a baboon

34
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What is the primary method of transmission for Blastocystis hominis?

Fecal-oral transmission

35
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What is the pathogenicity status of Blastocystis hominis?

Not fully determined

36
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What is the most common flagellate parasite in the US?

Giardia duodenalis

37
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What disease does Giardia duodenalis cause?

Giardiasis (beaver fever)

38
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What are the two forms in which Giardia exits the body?

Trophozoite and cysts

39
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What is the morphology of Giardia trophozoites?

Pear or tear drop shaped with two nuclei and multiple flagella

40
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What is the infective stage of Giardia duodenalis?

Cysts

41
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What is the primary clinical sign of Giardia duodenalis infection?

Acute fatty diarrhea

42
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What diagnostic method is used to identify Giardia trophozoites?

Fecal smear

43
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What is the treatment for Giardia duodenalis infection?

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

44
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What is the life cycle of Giardia duodenalis?

Fecal-oral transmission → Ingestion of cysts → Release of trophozoites in the duodenum

45
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What are the assemblages of Giardia duodenalis that infect humans?

Assemblages A and B

46
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What is the structure that helps Trichomonads attach to epithelial cells?

Axostyle

47
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What is a common characteristic of Trichomonads?

They usually lack a cyst stage

48
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What is the method of division in Trichomonads?

Longitudinal binary fission

49
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What is the significance of hydrogenosomes in Trichomonads?

They produce ATP and metabolize pyruvate

50
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What is the primary transmission method for Trichomonas vaginalis?

Direct contact (STD in humans)

51
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What is the role of personal hygiene in preventing Giardia infections?

It helps protect water sources and reduces transmission

52
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What is the characteristic of Giardia cysts?

They are oval shaped and immediately infective

53
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What is the common symptom of Giardia infection in animals?

Diarrhea

54
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What is the recommended method for diagnosing Giardia cysts?

Fecal flotation test

55
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What is tritrichomonas foetus?

An STD in cattle causing bovine genital trichomoniasis.

56
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What disease does tritrichomonas blagburni cause in cats?

Chronic, waxing, and waning large bowel diarrhea.

57
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What is histomonas meleagridis known for?

Causing blackhead disease in turkeys and other gallinaceous fowl.

58
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What is the primary mode of transmission for histomonas meleagridis?

Ingesting Heterakis gallinarum eggs or cloacal drinking.

59
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What are the symptoms of trichomoniasis in females?

Vaginitis, foul-smelling discharge, pain during intercourse, and painful urination.

60
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What is the incubation period for trichomoniasis?

4 days to 4 weeks.

61
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How is trichomoniasis diagnosed?

In pouch culture, direct smear, rapid antigen tests, or molecular diagnosis.

62
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What is the treatment for trichomoniasis?

Metronidazole.

63
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What is the significance of the trophozoite stage in trichomonas species?

It is the only stage present; no cysts are formed.

64
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What are the common diagnostic tests for tritrichomonas foetus in bulls?

Preputial scraping, direct microscopic observation, culture, and PCR.

65
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What are the economic impacts of histomoniasis in chickens?

Approximately $2 million per year in the US.

66
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What is the characteristic appearance of histomonas meleagridis?

Pleomorphic, with no true cyst stage and various trophic stages.

67
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What are the principal lesions caused by histomonas meleagridis?

Pinpoint ulcers in the cecum and liver.

68
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What are the life cycle stages of kinetoplastids?

Trypomastigote, epimastigote, promastigote, and amastigote.

69
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What is the role of the kinetoplast in kinetoplastids?

It contains unique mitochondrial DNA and is important for the parasite's structure.

70
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What are the two sections of Trypanosoma classification?

Stercoraria (posterior development) and salivaria (anterior development).

71
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What is antigenic variation in African trypanosomes?

The ability of the parasite to mix proteins to evade the immune system.

72
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What is the main vector for Trypanosoma brucei?

The Tsetse fly.

73
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What disease is caused by Trypanosoma brucei?

African sleeping sickness (HAT).

74
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What are the two forms of African sleeping sickness caused by Trypanosoma brucei?

T. brucei gambiense (chronic) and T. brucei rhodesiense (acute).

75
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What is the significance of the metacyclic trypomastigote?

It is the infective form that transfers infection between hosts.

76
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What are the common symptoms of African sleeping sickness?

Fever, headaches, joint pains, and neurological symptoms in advanced stages.

77
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What is the life cycle of Leishmania characterized by?

Development in insect vectors and mammalian hosts, with distinct stages.

78
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What is the primary habitat for Trypanosoma species?

Blood, lymphatic system, and tissues of hosts.

79
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How do kinetoplastids multiply?

By binary fission.

80
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What is the role of insect vectors in the life cycle of trypanosomatids?

They transmit the parasites through blood feeding and provide a developmental stage.

81
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What are the common symptoms of trichomoniasis in males?

Usually asymptomatic, but can include urethritis and prostate issues.

82
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What is the significance of safe sex practices in preventing trichomoniasis?

They reduce the risk of transmission of the infection.

83
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What is Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense known for?

It represents under 5% of reported cases and causes an acute infection that develops rapidly and invades the central nervous system.

84
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What is a key characteristic of Trypanosoma brucei gambiense?

It causes a chronic infection and is associated with Winterbottom's sign, which is swelling of lymph nodes.

85
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What is the primary vector for Trypanosoma brucei?

Tsetse flies.

86
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What are the symptoms of true sleeping sickness caused by T. brucei gambiense?

Behavioral and personality changes, apathy, confusion, fatigue, coordination loss, and somnolence.

87
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What is the life cycle of Trypanosoma cruzi?

Kissing bugs take a blood meal, passing metacyclic trypomastigotes in feces, which enter the host through bite wounds or mucosal membranes.

88
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What disease is caused by Trypanosoma cruzi?

Chagas' disease.

89
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What are the two main phases of Chagas' disease?

Acute and chronic phases.

90
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What is Romana's sign?

Periorbital swelling syndrome that occurs when feces from kissing bugs are rubbed into the eye.

91
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What are the clinical forms of Leishmania infections?

Visceral, cutaneous, and mucocutaneous leishmaniasis.

92
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What is the vector for Leishmania spp.?

Sand flies.

93
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What is cutaneous leishmaniasis characterized by?

An erythematous asymptomatic papule that turns into a vesicle, pustule, and then an ulcer.

94
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What is visceral leishmaniasis also known as?

Kala-azar or black fever.

95
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What are the symptoms of visceral leishmaniasis?

Low-grade fever, malaise, generalized swelling of lymph nodes, enlarged liver and spleen, and joint problems.

96
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How is Leishmania infantum transmitted?

From dogs to humans via sand flies.

97
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What is the infective stage of Trypanosoma brucei?

Metacyclic trypomastigotes.

98
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What are the life stages of Leishmania in the vertebrate host?

Amastigotes.

99
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What is a significant ecological aspect of Trypanosoma cruzi?

It maintains wild, peridomestic, and domestic cycles involving wildlife, dogs, and humans.

100
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What is the prevalence of Chagas' disease in the US?

Approximately 300,000 people are infected, many of whom are unaware.