DNZ Unit 2

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Last updated 7:36 PM on 9/4/26
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90 Terms

1
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Which parasite species is the primary cause of Cutaneous Larva Migrans in North America?

Ancylostoma braziliense

2
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The skin condition characterized by elevated, serpiginous, vesicular tracts from hookworm larvae is known as _____.

Cutaneous Larva Migrans

3
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What are two common names for the disease caused by Cutaneous Larva Migrans?

Plumber's itch or sandworms.

4
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Identify the primary first-line treatment for Cutaneous Larva Migrans in humans.

Thiabendazole

5
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In the context of Cutaneous Larva Migrans, what is the significance of humans as 'incidental' hosts?

The larvae cannot complete their life cycle and eventually die in the skin.

6
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Which parasitic species are commonly associated with the development of Visceral Larva Migrans?

Toxocara canis, Toxocara cati, and Baylisascaris procyonis.

7
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What is the primary mode of transmission for humans to contract Visceral Larva Migrans?

Ingestion of eggs from contaminated soil.

8
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Which clinical sign is frequently observed in children infected with Visceral Larva Migrans?

Hepatomegaly

9
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In Visceral Larva Migrans, larvae typically migrate from the liver to which other three organs?

The heart, brain, and lungs.

10
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Which diagnostic bloodwork finding is characteristic of a Visceral Larva Migrans infection?

Increased eosinophils.

11
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Identify the primary causative genus of Ocular Larva Migrans.

Toxocara

12
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What is a characteristic clinical sign of Ocular Larva Migrans visible during an ophthalmic exam?

Retinal granuloma

13
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Besides thiabendazole and surgery, what class of medication is used to treat Ocular Larva Migrans?

Steroids

14
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What is the common name for parasites in the genus Toxocara?

Roundworms

15
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Identify the distinct 'pot belly' clinical sign often associated with heavy infestations of which parasite in puppies?

Roundworms

16
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What is the most common diagnostic method for detecting roundworm eggs in pets?

Fecal flotation

17
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Which three medications are standard treatments for canine and feline roundworms?

Pyrantel pamoate, fenbendazole, and ivermectin.

18
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Identify the three primary genera of hookworms found in dogs and cats.

Ancylostoma, Uncinaria, and Bunostomum.

19
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What major hematologic clinical sign is caused by the blood-feeding behavior of hookworms?

Anemia

20
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Which specific anthelmintic combination is known as 'Drontal Plus' for treating hookworms?

Praziquantel, pyrantel, and febantel.

21
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Identify the primary species of whipworm that affects dogs.

Trichuris vulpis

22
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According to the source material, how common are whipworm infections in cats?

They are considered rare.

23
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What is the zoonotic status of the canine whipworm, Trichuris vulpis?

It is not considered zoonotic.

24
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What is the primary intermediate host for the tapeworm Dipylidium caninum?

Fleas

25
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Which diagnostic cue involves finding 'segments' that look like grains of rice on a pet's feces or around the anus?

Proglottids

26
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Identify the intermediate host for the tapeworm species Taenia pisiformis.

Rabbits

27
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Which medication is highly effective against both Dipylidium and Taenia tapeworm species?

Praziquantel

28
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What is the scientific name of the causative agent for heartworm disease in dogs and cats?

Dirofilaria immitis

29
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How is Dirofilaria immitis transmitted between animals?

Through the bite of an infected mosquito.

30
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The immature stage of the heartworm found in the bloodstream is known as _____.

Microfilaria

31
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Identify a severe clinical sign of canine heartworm disease related to heart failure.

Ascites

32
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What is the standard diagnostic test used to detect adult heartworm antigens?

ELISA

33
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In feline heartworm disease, what is the general prognosis for treatment according to the source?

There is no specific treatment, and the disease is often self-limiting.

34
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Which tick-borne protozoan parasite is known for looking like 'balls' inside red blood cells?

Babesia canis

35
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What is the primary tick vector for Babesia canis in dogs?

Rhipicephalus sanguineus (Brown dog tick).

36
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Identify the two main medications used to treat Babesiosis.

Tetracycline and imidocarb.

37
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Which feline-specific protozoan disease is colloquially known as 'Bobcat Fever'?

Cytauxzoon felis

38
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Which tick species is the primary vector for Cytauxzoon felis?

Amblyomma americanum (Lone star tick).

39
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What is the typical clinical outcome for a cat infected with Cytauxzoon felis without rapid treatment?

Death

40
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Identify the characteristic clinical sign of Giardia infection related to stool quality.

Steatorrhea (fatty, chronic diarrhea).

41
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Which specific fecal flotation solution is recommended for the diagnosis of Giardia?

Zinc sulfate

42
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Identify the genus of protozoa that causes Coccidiosis in dogs and cats.

Cystoisospora

43
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Which two drugs are commonly used to treat Coccidiosis?

Albon (Sulfadimethoxine) and Ponazuril.

44
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Which protozoan parasite is a major concern for pregnant women due to its potential to cause abortion or birth defects?

Toxoplasma gondii

45
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What is the first-line antibiotic treatment for Toxoplasmosis in cats?

Clindamycin

46
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Identify the three main genera of mosquitoes discussed as vectors in the source material.

Anopheles, Aedes, and Culex.

47
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Which arthropod is responsible for the 'New World Screwworm' infection?

Cochliomyia hominivorax

48
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What is the recommended treatment for a 'Cuterebra' infestation (warbles)?

Surgical removal.

49
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Identify the scientific term for an infestation of lice.

Pediculosis

50
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Lice in the order Mallophaga are characterized by which feeding behavior?

Chewing or biting.

51
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Lice in the order Anoplura are characterized by which feeding behavior?

Bloodsucking

52
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Identify the most common flea species found on both dogs and cats.

Ctenocephalides felis

53
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How can 'flea dirt' be definitively identified on a pet's coat?

Moisten the debris with water to see if it turns red (indicating digested blood).

54
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Which tick species is commonly known as the 'Deer Tick'?

Ixodes scapularis

55
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Which tick species is commonly known as the 'American Dog Tick'?

Dermacentor variabilis

56
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Which tick species is commonly known as the 'Lone Star Tick'?

Amblyomma americanum

57
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What neurological condition can be caused by the saliva of certain female ticks?

Tick paralysis

58
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Identify the causative mite of Feline Scabies.

Notoedres cati

59
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What is a characteristic clinical sign of Notoedres cati infection in cats?

Yellow crusting on the head, neck, and ears.

60
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Identify the causative mite of Canine Scabies (Sarcoptic Mange).

Sarcoptes scabiei

61
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What is the standard diagnostic procedure for confirming a Scabies infestation?

Superficial skin scrape.

62
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Identify the scientific name for the common ear mite of dogs and cats.

Otodectes cynotis

63
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What does the typical ear discharge look like in an Otodectes cynotis infestation?

Dark, waxy exudate resembling coffee grounds.

64
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Which skin mite is a normal inhabitant of animal skin but can cause disease if the immune system is compromised?

Demodex canis

65
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What is the required diagnostic method for detecting Demodex mites?

Deep skin scrape (until capillary bleeding occurs).

66
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Why is it recommended not to breed dogs that have suffered from generalized demodicosis?

The condition has a known genetic predisposition.

67
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Which parasite is colloquially known as 'Walking Dandruff'?

Cheyletiella species.

68
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Identify the clinical sign associated with Trombicula species (chiggers).

Orange crusts and intense pruritus.

69
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What is the zoonotic status of Toxocara canis?

It is zoonotic (causes VLM and OLM).

70
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Which parasite treatment involves a three-step process including heartworm prevention followed by two separate adulticide treatments?

Canine Heartworm Disease

71
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Identify the preferred diagnostic test for identifying lice or Cheyletiella mites besides a coat exam.

Cellophane tape exam.

72
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What is the primary method of preventing Toxoplasmosis in humans regarding food safety?

Do not eat raw or undercooked meat.

73
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Which protozoan parasite is diagnosed using a fecal flotation with iodine stain?

Giardia

74
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In hookworm infections, what is the typical description of the stool?

Bloody or tarry (melena).

75
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What is the geographic distribution of the New World Screwworm?

North America

76
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Identify the primary clinical sign of a Cuterebra infestation.

Swelling with a central breathing hole (opening).

77
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Which parasite is associated with 'plumber's itch'?

Ancylostoma species (Hookworms).

78
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Identify the specific order of fleas.

Siphonaptera

79
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Which louse species is a common 'chewing' louse of dogs?

Trichodectes canis

80
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Which louse species is a common 'chewing' louse of cats?

Felicola subrostrata

81
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What is the zoonotic status of Sarcoptes scabiei?

It is zoonotic.

82
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Identify the scientific name for the 'Brown Dog Tick'.

Rhipicephalus sanguineus

83
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Which anthelmintic is used as a topical otic treatment for ear mites?

Ivermectin or milbemycin.

84
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Identify the term for a parasitic disease that can be transmitted from animals to humans.

Zoonosis

85
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What is the recommended prevention for Giardia regarding the environment?

Decontamination of the premises and prompt fecal removal.

86
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Which internal parasite is described as looking like 'spaghetti' when seen as adults in vomit or stool?

Roundworms (Toxocara spp.).

87
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Identify the diagnostic method used to see the 'rice-like' segments of tapeworms.

Gross examination of feces or the perineal area.

88
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Which parasite causes 'unthrifty' haircoat and weight loss but is primarily limited to dogs?

Trichuris vulpis (Whipworm).

89
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What is the primary prevention for Heartworm disease in both dogs and cats?

Monthly heartworm preventative medication.

90
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Identify the tick family name for 'hard ticks' like Ixodes and Dermacentor.

Ixodidae