Genetic Diseases

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73 Terms

1
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How many pairs of autosomes are there in humans?

22 pairs

2
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How many pairs of sex chromosomes do humans have (X or Y)?

1

3
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What percent of genome are protein-coding genes?

1.5%

4
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What percent of the genome is transcribed into RNA?

85%

5
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What percent of the genome is devoted to the regulation of gene expression?

80%

6
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What percent of the genome is devoted to the regulation of gene expression?

80%

7
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What is the function of promoters and enhancers?

bind transcription factors

8
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What are promoters and enhancers binding sites for?

DNA-binding proteins that organize and maintain chromatin structure

9
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What are non-coding regulatory RNAs?

genes that are transcribed but not translated

10
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What are microRNAs and long non-coding RNAs examples of?

non-coding regulatory RNAs

11
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What are transposons?

mobile genetic elements

12
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What are telomeres and centromeres?

structural regions of DNA

13
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What are covalent modifications of DNA, post-translational modifications of histones, and 3D chromatin structure?

epigenetic mechanisms

14
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What are SNPs?

single nucleotide positions

15
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Where are SNPs found?

in coding and non-coding regions

16
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What may non-coding SNPs alter?

the regulation of gene expression

17
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What may coding SNPs alter?

sequence of a protein

18
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Do “neutral” SNPs have an effect on gene function or phenotype?

no

19
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Is the effect of individual SNPs on disease susceptibility strong or weak, particularly for complex diseases such as diabetes, heart disease, or cancer?

weak

20
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What are CNVs?

copy number variations

21
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About what percent of CNVs involve coding sequences?

50%

22
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What are duplications, triplications, deletions, and inversions examples of?

copy number variations (CNVs)

23
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What are point mutations?

substitution of a single nucleotide base by a different base

24
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What is a missense point mutation?

changes an amino acid

25
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What is a nonsense point mutation?

creates a stop coding

26
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What are CRISPRs?

clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats

27
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What is CRISPR a form of?

bacterial “immunity”

28
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How does CRISPR gene edit?

uses artificial guide RNAs that target a DNA sequence of interest to introduce mutations

29
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What was the first CRISPR/Cas9-based therapy approved to treat?

sickle cell disease (Casgevy)

30
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What are frameshift mutations?

insertion or deletion of 1-2 base pair alters the reading frame of the DNA strand

31
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What is a wild type protein-coding gene?

mRNA sequence without any mutation

32
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What is a base-pair deletion protein-coding gene?

frameshift causing extensive missense

33
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What is a base-pair insertion protein-coding gene?

frameshift causing immediate nonsense

34
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What is a trinucleotide repeat mutation?

amplification of repeated sequence of 3 bases

35
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What is repeat expansion/amplification?

number of repeats increasing during gametogenesis

36
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What does it mean for a variation to be intra-chromosonal?

within the same chromosome

37
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What does it mean for a variation to be inter-chromosomal?

segments are moved or exchanged between different chromosomes

38
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What are mutations?

changes in DNA sequence

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What are epimutations?

changes in epigenetic mechanisms that change gene expression

40
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Through what mechanism does inactivation of tumor suppressor genes occur?

promoter hypermethylation

41
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Through what mechanism does activation of oncogenes occur?

promoter demethylation

42
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What are Mendelian disorders resulting from?

mutations in single genes

43
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What are cytogenetic disease resulting from?

changes in chromosomal number or structure

44
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What are non-mendelian genetic diseases resulting from?

single gene mutations with atypical patterns of expression

45
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What describes an autosomal dominant disorder?

  • one copy is sufficient to cause disease

  • disease manifests in homozygous state

  • does not skip a generation

  • male and female are equally likely to be affected

  • affected offspring have at least one affected parent

46
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What describes an autosomal recessive disorder?

  • two copies are needed to cause disease

  • disease manifests in homozygous state

  • typically skips a generation

  • affected offspring may have unaffected parents

  • male and female offspring are equally likely to be affected

47
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What describes X-linked mendelian disorders?

  • females can transfer only to sons

  • daughter may be carrier

  • affected males cannot transmit disorder to son

  • typically skips a generation

  • male offspring are more likely to be affected

48
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What is a single gene mutation has many phenotypic effects?

pleiotropy

49
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What is multiple genes causing the same trait?

genetic heterogenity

50
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What is the proportion of individuals with the mutation that exhibit clinical symptoms among all individuals with such mutation?

penetrance

51
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What is an example of incomplete penetrance?

BRCA1

52
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What is the degree to which a phenotype is expressed by individuals having a particular genotype?

expressivity

53
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What are Huntington’s disease and Ehler-Danlos syndrome examples of?

autosomal dominant inheritance

54
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What are cystic fibrosis and sickle cell diseases examples of?

autosomal recessive inheritance

55
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What is Fragile X Syndrome an example?

X-linked recessive inheritance

56
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What is the most common life-limiting disease in the US that affects individuals of European descent?

cystic fibrosis

57
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What is the disorder of epithelial ion transport that affects fluid secretion in the lining of the respiratory, GI, and reproductive tracts?

cystic fibrosis

58
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What is characteristic of cystic fibrosis?

  • recurrent and chronic pulmonary infections

  • pancreatic insufficiency

  • male infertility

  • high NaCl in sweat

59
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What is the primary defect in CF?

reduced production or abnormal function of CFTR (cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator), an epithelial chloride and bicarbonate channel protein

60
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What are the five classes of mutations in CTFR?

protein production, protein processing, gating, conduction, and insufficient

61
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What is the most common CF mutation with 90% having it?

F508del (protein processing mutation)

62
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What treatment treats the underlying cause of disease (the defective CTFR) in a majority of the CF population?

Trikafta

63
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What is Trikafta a combination of?

elexacaftor, ivacaftor, and tezacaftor

64
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What is ivacaftor?

chloride channel opener

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What is elexacaftor and tezacaftor?

CFTR modulators

66
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What describes when there is an extra copy of chromosome 21?

trisomy 21

67
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What is characteristic of trisomy 21?

  • 40% have congenital heart disease

  • 10-20 fold increased risk of acute leukemia

  • predisposed to serious lung infection and thyroid autoimmunity

  • nearly all trisomy 21 patients older than 40 have Alzheimer’s pathology

68
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What is the translocation event between the BCR (chr22) and ABL (chr9) genes?

philadelphia

69
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What involves CGG repeating in the FMR1 gene?

Fragile X Syndrome

70
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What conditions are associated with Fragile X Syndrome?

tremor/ataxia syndrome, primary ovarian insufficiency

71
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What Mendelian disorder primary affects males?

X-linked

72
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What is genetic anticipation?

when clinical features worsen or begin earlier with each successive generation

73
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What is a genetic variant that occurs in at least 1% of the population?

polymorphism