EMT - Chapter 33: Obstetrics and Neonatal Care

Which of the following processes occurs during ovulation?

A. Certain female hormone levels decrease significantly in quantity.

B. The endometrium sheds its lining and is expelled from the vagina.

C. The inner lining of the uterus thickens in preparation for implantation.

D. Numerous follicles mature and release eggs into the fallopian tubes.

C. The inner lining of the uterus thickens in preparation for implantation.

From what internal female organ is the fetus expelled during delivery?

A. vagina

B. uterus

C. cervix

D. perineum

B. uterus

The vagina and the neck of the uterus comprise the:

A. womb.

B. cervix.

C. fundus.

D. birth canal.

D. birth canal.

The term "bloody show" is defined as:

A. the small amount of pink-tinged mucus that is discharged from the vagina after expulsion of the mucous

plug.

B. mild vaginal bleeding that occurs within the first 30 minutes after the onset of the second stage of the labor

process.

C. the normal amount of vaginal bleeding that occurs within the first 24 hours following delivery of the baby

and placenta.

D. any volume of blood that is expelled from the vagina after the amniotic sac has ruptured and contractions

have begun.

A. the small amount of pink-tinged mucus that is discharged from the vagina after expulsion of the mucous

plug.

Which of the following statements regarding the placenta is correct?

A. The placenta allows oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other products to transfer between the mother and fetus but

does not allow blood to mix between the mother and fetus.

B. The placental barrier consists of two layers of cells and allows the mother's blood that contains high

concentrations of oxygen to directly mix with the blood of the fetus.

C. The placenta, also referred to as the afterbirth, provides oxygen and nutrients to the fetus and is expelled

from the vagina about 30 minutes before the baby is born.

D. The placenta allows for the transfer of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the mother and fetus but

prevents most medications from passing between the mother and fetus.

A. The placenta allows oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other products to transfer between the mother and fetus but

does not allow blood to mix between the mother and fetus.

The umbilical cord:

A. separates from the placenta shortly after birth.

B. carries blood away from the baby via the artery.

C. carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein.

D. contains two veins and one large umbilical artery.

C. carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein.

The amniotic fluid serves to:

A. transfer oxygen to the fetus.

B. insulate and protect the fetus.

C. remove viruses from the fetus.

D. assist in fetal development.

B. insulate and protect the fetus.

Most medical models base a pregnant woman's due date:

A. two weeks after her last menstrual cycle.

B. on the last day of her last menstrual cycle.

C. two weeks before her last menstrual cycle.

D. on the first day of her last menstrual cycle.

D. on the first day of her last menstrual cycle.

By the 20th week of pregnancy, the uterus is typically at or above the level of the mother's:

A. belly button.

B. pubic bone.

C. xiphoid process.

D. superior diaphragm.

A. belly button.

Which of the following is a normal physiologic change that occurs in the mother's respiratory system during

pregnancy?

A. decreased respiratory rate and increased minute volume

B. increased respiratory rate and decreased respiratory reserve

C. increased respiratory reserve and decreased oxygen demand

D. increased respiratory depth and decreased respiratory rate

B. increased respiratory rate and decreased respiratory reserve

Pregnant women are advised to take iron supplements, such as prenatal vitamins, because:

A. iron makes the blood clot faster, which protects the mother from excessive bleeding during delivery.

B. the blood naturally thins during pregnancy, which predisposes the mother to severe bleeding.

C. white blood cells decrease during pregnancy, which increases the mother's risk of an infection.

D. pregnancy causes a decreased number of red blood cells, which predisposes the mother to anemia.

D. pregnancy causes a decreased number of red blood cells, which predisposes the mother to anemia.

A mother who is pregnant with her first baby is typically in the first stage of labor for approximately:

A. 4 hours.

B. 8 hours.

C. 10 hours.

D. 16 hours.

D. 16 hours.

The onset of labor begins with:

A. thinning of the uterus.

B. full dilation of the cervix.

C. increased fetal movement.

D. contractions of the uterus.

D. contractions of the uterus.

The term primigravida refers to a woman who:

A. has never been pregnant.

B. has had only one live birth.

C. is pregnant for the first time.

D. has had more than one live baby.

C. is pregnant for the first time.

Which of the following occurs during true labor?

A. Uterine contractions decrease in intensity.

B. The uterus becomes very soft and movable.

C. Uterine contractions become more regular.

D. Uterine contractions last about 10 seconds.

C. Uterine contractions become more regular.

Braxton-Hicks contractions are characterized by:

A. regular contractions of progressively increasing intensity.

B. alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions.

C. pink or red bloody show in conjunction with the contractions.

D. a rupture of the amniotic sac just before the contractions begin.

B. alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions.

After the fetus has descended into the pelvis at the end of the third trimester, many mothers experience:

A. midback pain.

B. a bloated feeling.

C. an urge to push.

D. easier breathing.

D. easier breathing.

The third stage of labor begins when the:

A. placenta is fully delivered.

B. cervix is completely dilated.

C. umbilical cord has been clamped.

D. baby is expelled from the vagina.

D. baby is expelled from the vagina.

Preeclampsia MOST commonly occurs after the ____ week of gestation.

A. 12th

B. 20th

C. 24th

D. 30th

D. 30th

Signs and symptoms of preeclampsia include:

A. headache and edema.

B. marked hypoglycemia.

C. dyspnea and bradycardia.

D. dysuria and constipation.

A. headache and edema.

Eclampsia is MOST accurately defined as:

A. high levels of protein in the patient's urine.

B. hypertension in the 20th week of pregnancy.

C. seizures that result from severe hypertension.

D. a blood pressure greater than 140/90 mm Hg.

C. seizures that result from severe hypertension.

Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when:

A. a supine position kinks the ascending aorta.

B. the pregnant uterus compresses the inferior vena cava.

C. the superior vena cava is compressed by the uterus.

D. blood pressure decreases as a result of hypovolemia.

B. the pregnant uterus compresses the inferior vena cava.

A 33-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant is experiencing scant vaginal bleeding. During transport,

you note that she suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. In addition to administering

100% oxygen, you should:

A. place her in a left lateral recumbent position.

B. position her supine and elevate her legs 12″.

C. carefully place sterile gauze into her vagina.

D. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.

A. place her in a left lateral recumbent position.

The leading cause of maternal death during the first trimester of pregnancy is:

A. massive brain damage secondary to a prolonged seizure.

B. unrecognized or untreated supine hypotensive syndrome.

C. internal bleeding caused by a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.

D. blunt trauma to the abdomen during a motor vehicle crash.

C. internal bleeding caused by a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.

A history of pelvic inflammatory disease or tubal ligations increases a woman's risk for:

A. preeclampsia.

B. placenta previa.

C. gestational diabetes.

D. an ectopic pregnancy.

D. an ectopic pregnancy.

Abruptio placenta occurs when:

A. the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall.

B. a tear in the placenta causes severe internal hemorrhage.

C. the placenta affixes itself to the outer layer of the uterus.

D. the placenta develops over and covers the cervical opening.

A. the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall.

Placenta previa is MOST accurately defined as:

A. delivery of a portion of the placenta before the baby.

B. premature placental separation from the uterine wall.

C. abnormal development and functioning of the placenta.

D. development of the placenta over the cervical opening.

D. development of the placenta over the cervical opening.

Which of the following statements regarding gestational diabetes is correct?

A. Gestational diabetes results in permanent diabetes mellitus after delivery.

B. The onset of gestational diabetes typically manifests with hypoglycemia.

C. In some cases, women with gestational diabetes require insulin injections.

D. Diet and exercise are typically ineffective in controlling gestational diabetes.

C. In some cases, women with gestational diabetes require insulin injections.

A pregnant trauma patient may lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of shock because:

A. pregnant patients can dramatically increase their heart rate.

B. pregnancy causes vasodilation and a lower blood pressure.

C. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume.

D. blood is shunted to the uterus and fetus during major trauma.

C. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume.

If a pregnant patient requires spinal immobilization, you should secure her to the backboard and then:

A. tilt the board 30° to the right to prevent hypotension.

B. elevate the right side of the board with rolled towels or blankets.

C. raise the foot of the board 12″ in order to maintain blood pressure.

D. elevate the head of the board 6″ to prevent breathing impairment.

B. elevate the right side of the board with rolled towels or blankets.

The presence of thick meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates:

A. an expected finding in full-term infants.

B. that the baby's airway may be obstructed.

C. that the fetus is at least 4 weeks premature.

D. that full newborn resuscitation will be needed.

B. that the baby's airway may be obstructed.

Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when determining whether a mother will deliver

her baby within the next few minutes?

A. "When are you due?"

B. "Is this your first baby?"

C. "Have you had a sonogram?"

D. "Do you feel the urge to push?"

C. "Have you had a sonogram?"

Which of the following is an indication of imminent birth?

A. rupture of the amniotic sac

B. crowning of the baby's head

C. irregular contractions lasting 10 minutes

D. expulsion of the mucus plug from the vagina

B. crowning of the baby's head

You are assessing a 25-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant. She is experiencing regular contractions

that are approximately 3 minutes apart and states that her amniotic sac broke 2 hours ago. After taking the

standard precautions, you should:

A. apply 100% oxygen.

B. place her on her left side.

C. assess her for crowning.

D. transport her immediately.

C. assess her for crowning.

When preparing a pregnant patient for delivery, you should position her:

A. in a supine position with her legs spread.

B. on her left side with the right leg elevated.

C. in a sitting position with her hips elevated 12″.

D. on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2″ to 4″.

D. on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2″ to 4″.

During delivery, it is MOST important to position your partner at the mother's head because:

A. the mother may become nauseated and vomit.

B. the mother needs to be apprised of the situation.

C. she may need emotional support during the delivery.

D. mothers often need assisted ventilation during delivery.

A. the mother may become nauseated and vomit.

A precipitous labor and delivery is MOST common in women who:

A. have gestational diabetes.

B. are younger than 30 years of age.

C. have delivered a baby before.

D. are pregnant for the first time.

C. have delivered a baby before.

When determining the frequency of contractions, you should time the contractions from the:

A. end of one to the start of the next.

B. start of one to the end of the next.

C. end of one to the end of the next.

D. start of one to the start of the next.

D. start of one to the start of the next.

When the mother is experiencing a contraction, you should instruct her to:

A. hold her breath.

B. push for 30 seconds.

C. take quick short breaths.

D. rest and breathe deeply.

C. take quick short breaths.

During delivery of the baby's head, you should suction the mouth before the nose because:

A. suctioning the nose first may cause the baby to gasp and aspirate fluid.

B. it is easier to suction larger volumes of fluid from the baby's oropharynx.

C. babies are primarily mouth breathers and do not breathe through their nose.

D. the mucosa of the nose is fragile and is easily damaged by vigorous suctioning.

A. suctioning the nose first may cause the baby to gasp and aspirate fluid.

During your visual inspection of a 19-year-old woman in labor, you see the baby's head crowning at the

vaginal opening. What should you do?

A. Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers.

B. Tell the mother not to push and transport her immediately.

C. Place your fingers in the vagina to assess for a nuchal cord.

D. Maintain firm pressure to the head until it completely delivers.

A. Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers.

Upon delivery of the baby's head, you note that its face is encased in the unruptured amniotic sac. You

should:

A. give the mother 100% oxygen and transport at once.

B. puncture the sac and suction the baby's mouth and nose.

C. leave the amniotic sac intact until arrival at the hospital.

D. note the color of the amniotic fluid before breaking the sac.

B. puncture the sac and suction the baby's mouth and nose.

A nuchal cord is defined as an umbilical cord that:

A. has separated from the placenta.

B. is wrapped around the baby's neck.

C. is lacerated due to a traumatic delivery.

D. has abnormally developed blood vessels.

B. is wrapped around the baby's neck.

Upon delivery of an infant's head, you note that the umbilical cord is wrapped around its neck. You should:

A. immediately clamp and cut the umbilical cord.

B. give 100% oxygen to the mother and transport at once.

C. provide free-flow oxygen to the infant and transport.

D. attempt to slip the cord gently over the infant's head.

D. attempt to slip the cord gently over the infant's head.

After a baby is born, it is important to:

A. ensure that it is thoroughly dried and warmed.

B. position it so that its head is higher than its body.

C. cool the infant to stimulate effective breathing.

D. immediately clamp and cut the umbilical cord.

A. ensure that it is thoroughly dried and warmed.

Following delivery of a full-term baby, you have properly cared for the baby and have clamped and cut the

umbilical cord. During transport, you note that the mother is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. You

should:

A. elevate her legs 6″ to 8″ and cover her with a blanket.

B. firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion.

C. carefully insert a sterile trauma dressing into her vagina.

D. place her legs together and position her on her left side.

B. firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion.

Which of the following is NOT generally considered an obstetrical emergency?

A. failure of the placenta to deliver after 30 minutes

B. significant bleeding after delivery of the placenta

C. return of contractions following delivery of the baby

D. more than 500 mL of blood loss before placental delivery

C. return of contractions following delivery of the baby

A newborn infant will usually begin breathing spontaneously within _______ seconds following birth.

A. 3 to 5

B. 5 to 10

C. 15 to 30

D. 30 to 60

C. 15 to 30

Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the

following, EXCEPT:

A. suctioning of the upper airway.

B. thorough drying with a towel.

C. positive-pressure ventilations.

D. some form of tactile stimulation.

C. positive-pressure ventilations.

If a newborn's heart rate is less than 60 beats/min following delivery, you should:

A. flick the soles of its feet.

B. begin chest compressions.

C. re-suction the mouth only.

D. provide ventilations for 30 seconds.

D. provide ventilations for 30 seconds.

Vigorous suctioning of a newborn's airway is indicated if:

A. there is meconium in the amniotic fluid.

B. positive-pressure ventilations are indicated.

C. the newborn presents with labored breathing.

D. his or her heart rate is less than 60 beats/min.

A. there is meconium in the amniotic fluid.

You have just delivered a premature baby. Your assessment reveals that he is breathing adequately;

however, his heart rate is 90 beats/min. You should:

A. keep him warm and provide ventilatory assistance.

B. begin chest compressions and reassess in 30 seconds.

C. clamp and cut the umbilical cord and keep him warm.

D. assess his skin color and give free-flow oxygen as needed.

A. keep him warm and provide ventilatory assistance.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the Apgar score?

A. pulse

B. activity

C. grimace

D. body size

D. body size

If a baby is born at 7:52, the second Apgar score should be calculated at:

A. 7:53.

B. 7:57.

C. 7:59.

D. 8:00.

B. 7:57.

You have just delivered a baby boy. His body is pink, but his hands and feet are blue. His heart rate is

approximately 110 beats/min and his respirations are rapid and irregular. He has a weak cry when

stimulated and resists attempts to straighten his legs. His Apgar score is:

A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 9

C. 8

You have just delivered a full-term infant. His respirations are rapid and irregular, and he has a strong cry.

What should you do next?

A. Allow the mother to hold her baby.

B. Clamp and cut the umbilical cord.

C. Assess the brachial or umbilical pulse.

D. Begin assisting the newborn's breathing.

C. Assess the brachial or umbilical pulse.

Which of the following statements regarding a breech presentation is MOST correct?

A. A breech presentation occurs when the buttocks are the presenting part.

B. There is minimal risk of trauma to the infant with a breech presentation.

C. It is impossible to deliver a breech presentation in the prehospital setting.

D. Breech deliveries occur rapidly, so the EMT should deliver at the scene.

A. A breech presentation occurs when the buttocks are the presenting part.

Your 22-year-old patient is in active labor. Upon visual inspection, you note that the infant's leg is

protruding from the vagina. Appropriate management of this situation includes:

A. placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated.

B. gently pulling on the infant's leg in an attempt to facilitate delivery.

C. placing the mother in a recumbent position and rapidly transporting.

D. carefully attempting to push the infant's leg off of the umbilical cord.

A. placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated.

The ONLY indications for placing your gloved fingers in the vagina during delivery are:

A. breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord.

B. limb presentation and severe vaginal hemorrhage.

C. vertex presentation and delivery of the placenta.

D. nuchal cord and presentation of an arm or leg.

A. breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord.

While examining a woman in labor, you see the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. You should:

A. carefully push the cord back into the vagina.

B. push the infant's head away from the cord.

C. cover the umbilical cord with a dry dressing.

D. gently pull on the cord to facilitate delivery.

B. push the infant's head away from the cord.

Spina bifida is a developmental defect in which:

A. an excessive amount of cerebrospinal fluid damages the spinal cord.

B. nerve fibers that arise from the spinal cord do not function properly.

C. the spinal column is severely deformed, resulting in permanent paralysis.

D. a portion of the spinal cord or meninges protrudes outside of the vertebrae.

D. a portion of the spinal cord or meninges protrudes outside of the vertebrae.

An abortion occurs when the fetus and placenta deliver before:

A. 20 weeks.

B. 24 weeks.

C. 26 weeks.

D. 28 weeks.

A. 20 weeks.

Which of the following statements regarding twins is correct?

A. Twins are typically larger than single infants.

B. Identical twins are typically of different gender.

C. Most twins are born within 45 minutes of each other.

D. Fraternal twins have two cords coming from one placenta.

C. Most twins are born within 45 minutes of each other.

Fetal complications associated with drug- or alcohol-addicted mothers include all of the following,

EXCEPT:

A. low birth weight.

B. profound tachycardia.

C. premature delivery.

D. respiratory depression.

B. profound tachycardia.

An infant is considered to be premature if it:

A. is born before 38 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 6 lb.

B. weighs less than 5.5 lb or is born before 37 weeks' gestation.

C. is born before 40 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 7 lb.

D. weighs less than 5 lb or is born before 36 weeks' gestation.

D. weighs less than 5 lb or is born before 36 weeks' gestation.

In contrast to a full-term infant, a premature infant:

A. has an even proportionately larger head.

B. is often covered with excess vernix material.

C. is one who is born before 38 weeks' gestation.

D. retains heat better because of excess body hair.

A. has an even proportionately larger head.

Following delivery of a pulseless and apneic infant who has a foul odor, skin sloughing, and diffuse

blistering, you should:

A. begin full resuscitation and transport.

B. report the case to the medical examiner.

C. provide emotional support to the mother.

D. dry the infant off to stimulate breathing.

C. provide emotional support to the mother.

General treatment guidelines when caring for a woman with traumatic vaginal bleeding include:

A. carefully removing impaled objects.

B. transporting to an appropriate facility.

C. packing the vagina with sterile dressings.

D. cleaning external wounds with sterile water.

B. transporting to an appropriate facility.