Week 4: Laboratory Evaluation

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Last updated 7:32 PM on 9/20/26
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92 Terms

1
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anticoagulant:blood ratio for coagulation testing

1:9

2
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needle gauge for routine coagulation testing

21

3
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needle gauge for platelet testing

19

4
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Routine coag. should be performed within ____- hours of collection no longer than _____ hours

2, 4

5
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which test is most sensitive to the timing of collection?

aPTT

6
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patients on heparin should be tested after ________ of collection

1 hour

7
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specimen should be centrifuged for ____________ at 2000 g’s for platelet poor plasma (PPP)

20 minutes

8
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a hematocrit of ________ is too high and will cause a prolonged result if collected with a normal collection tube

greater than 50%

9
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formula for correcting for high HCT in collection tube

  1. citrate (mL) = ( (100-HCT) / 60 ) * 0.3

  2. usually normal 2.7 mL draw


10
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with too low of a hematocrit, too little anticoagulant may cause…

activation of factors and a clotted specimen

11
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physiological activators in clotting assays

tissue extracts

12
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non physiological activators in clotting assays

silica, kaolin, celite

13
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therapeutic window of PT for coumadin therapy

2.0-3.0

14
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therapeutic range for INR

  1. standard dose = 2.0-3.0 → prophylaxis, VT, PE

  2. high dose = 2.5-3.5 → mechanical heart valve


15
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the russell viper venom (RVV) time or stypen time activates the pathway at ___________

Factor X

16
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RVV time does not require __________

Factor VII

17
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what does RVV time help to evaluate?

X or V deficiency

18
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normal RVV time

12 seconds

19
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partial thromboplastin mimics PLF3, and _______ acts as a contact activator to speed up the reaction and provide a negative charge

kaolin

20
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what is aPTT most sensitive to?

VIII and IX

21
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which test is affected by lupus anticoagulant?

aPTT

22
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activated clotting time (ACT)

  1. similar to aPTT, but with whole blood

  2. without PL and CaCl2

  3. uses a contact activator

  4. monitors very high doses of unfractionated heparin

  5. associated with open heart surgery


23
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normal time for ACT

300 seconds

24
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ACT is not useful for _____

LMWH

25
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lee white whole blood clotting time

  1. old and insensitive test

  2. overall coagulation

  3. bedside

  4. 4-8 minutes at 37C

  5. 8-15 at RT


26
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clauss quantity of functional fibrinogen

  1. normal = 200-400 mg/dl

  2. high conc. of thrombin added

  3. standard curve from known fibrinogen and sequential dilutions

  4. clotting time is recorded


27
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what does not interfere with clauss method?

heparin

28
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radial immunodiffusion assay (RIA)

  1. antigenic amount of molecule

  2. not for function


29
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thrombin time

  1. screening for fibrinogen activity

  2. low concentration of thrombin

  3. sensitive to < 100 mg/dl of fibrinogen


30
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what can thrombin time indicate?

  1. fibrinogen deficiency

  2. heparin therapy/contamination


31
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heparin + ____ rapidly neutralizes thrombin, which prolongs the TT

AT

32
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reptilase test

  1. thrombin-like enzyme

  2. it cleaves fibrin peptide


33
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how is the reptilase test useful?

  1. heparin does not interfere

  2. a prolonged TT and normal RT → confirms heparin presence


34
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protamine sulfate neutralizes __________

heparin

35
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use of toluidine blue/hepzine

  1. when TT is abnormal, check for heparin contamination

  2. sub toluidine blue for the buffer and repeat the test

  3. if corrected → there is heparin contamination

  4. if still prolonged → lack of fibrinogen in patient


36
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protamine sulfate

used to detect the presence of fibrin monomers, which are early FDP (X and Y)

37
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when can protamine sulfate yield a positive result?

  • DIC

  • cirrhosis

  • pulmonary emboli


38
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what specimen is used with protamine sulfate and ethanol gelation?

plasma

39
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ethanol gelation

detects the presence of fibrin monomers, and a screener to rule out DIC and primary fibrinolysis

40
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what specimen can be used for FDP tests?

serum or plasma

41
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FDP tests for which fragments?

X and Y

42
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D-dimer tests for which fragments?

D and E (D-dimer)

43
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the D-dimer test is what type of assay?

monoclonal antibody-based

44
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euglobulin and its components

  • a group of plasma proteins that precipitate out when blood plasma is diluted and made acidic

  • fibrinogen, plasminogen, tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), and plasmin


45
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euglobulin lysis is sensitive to increased _____________________

plasminogen activators

46
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euglobulin lysis in less than __________ is an indication of increased fibrinolytic activity

2 hours

47
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clot lysis test

  • clot should be intact for 48 hours

  • measures all fibrinolytic activity

  • could detect any fibrinogen deficiency


48
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when is a mixing study done?

after a prolonged PT or aPTT

49
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before mixing studies be sure there are no ______ in the sample or the presence of __________

clots, heparin

50
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how is a mixing study performed?

  1. add equal parts normal plasma + patient plasma

  2. repeat the PT and aPTT

  3. correction → factor deficiency

  4. no correction → inhibitor


51
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what is a factor assay?

specific assay to figure out what is causing a prolonged PT and aPTT

52
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how is a factor assay performed?

  1. patient’s plasma has dilutions made

  2. substrate is added with only 1 factor missing

  3. read off standard curve from a known sample


53
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what does a factory assay evaluate?

the percent activity of the factor to determine mild, moderate, or severe deficiency

54
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how is XIII evaluated?

  1. urea solubility → not soluble in 5M

  2. normal clot = intact 24 hours

  3. XIII deficiency = clot dissolves


55
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anti phospholipid syndrome (APS) is _____________

acquired

56
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with anti phospholipid syndrome, the aPTT is ____________, but the patients tend to ___________

prolonged, thrombosis

57
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lupus anticoagulant

  1. IgG, IgM, and IgA types

  2. an antibody with activity against the PL in the cascade


58
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anti-cardiolipin antibodies (ACA)

  1. IgG and IgM types

  2. they are directed against cardiolipin and other negatively charged phospholipids


59
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tests performed to evaluate a circulating inhibitor

  1. aPTT

  2. platelet neutralization procedure

  3. tissue thromboplastin inhibitor TTI

  4. dilute RVV

  5. hexagonal phase

  6. bethesda titer


60
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platelet neutralization procedure

  1. confirms/rules out lupus anticoagulant

  2. run after prolonged aPTT

  3. add freeze-thawed platelets to sample (PL source)

  4. correction → LA is present


61
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the dilute RVV uses dilute ______________

thromboplastin

62
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normal time for dilute RVV

35-37 seconds

63
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hexagonal phase confirm test

  • confirms the presence of lupus anticoagulants

  • uses the addition of phospholipids

  • correction → LA is present


64
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what does the bethesda titer measure?

amount of factor inhibitors

65
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how is the bethesda titer assay performed?

  1. patient plasma is mixed with normal plasma

  2. incubate at 37C for 2 hours → any inhibitor will neutralize the factor

  3. remaining factor activity is compared to control


66
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bethesda units

1 unit = the amount of inhibitor that neutralizes 50% activity in normal plasma

67
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what questions should be raised if the aPTT is prolonged?

  1. was the anticoagulant : blood ratio correct?

  2. what is the HCT?

  3. was the sample drawn through a line?

  4. is there heparin contamination?

  5. do we need a mixing study?


68
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aPTT abnormal → mixing study → no correction → ?

specific factor inhibitor or lupus anticoagulant

69
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aPTT abnormal → mixing study → correction → ?

deficiency, perform a factor assay

70
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aPTT abnormal → toluidine blue → correction → ?

heparin contamination

71
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aPTT abnormal → hepzyme → no correction → ?

test for abnormal fibrinogen

72
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laurell rocket is an agar that contains what?

antibody specific to antigen

73
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what does the laurell rocket electrophoresis measure?

  • protein C

  • protein S

  • VIII:vWf

  • measures total factor present, not activity


74
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ELISA for factors

sandwich technique to measure total protein, where increased color is increased concentration

75
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chromogenic methods measure the _____________ levels of AT and protein C and S

functional

76
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how does solid-phase EIA work?

  1. well is coated with antigen

  2. add patient’s plasma (it may contain Ab)

  3. add HRP-conjugated AHG (this binds Ab)

  4. add enzymatic substrate (TMB)

  5. measure absorbance


77
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how does the chromogenic assay work?

  1. peptide + chromophore (para-nitroaniline)

  2. protease cleaves peptide → free chromophore

  3. change in absorbance = enzyme activity

  4. pNA = 405 nm


78
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when performing a chromogenic assay for protein C, what is first added to the patient’s plasma?

the activator (southern copperhead venom)

79
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in a chromogenic assay after protein C is activated, what happens when the substrate is added?

protein C cleaves the substrate and pNA is released → yellow color read at 405 nm

80
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what is the purpose of an anti-Xa assay?

measures the amount of heparin or other anti-factor Xa drugs in your blood to make sure your dose is safe and correct

81
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what type of heparin can be evaluated by the anti-Xa assay?

  • unfractionated

  • LMWH

    • lovenox

    • fragmin

    • fondaparinux

    • aristra


82
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electromechanical and electromagnetic methods are both __________________

mechanical

83
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turbidity and nephelometry methods are both ___________

photometric

84
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what are 4 main automation methods?

  1. mechanical

  2. photometric

  3. chromogenic

  4. immunologic


85
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what methodology is described?

  • 2 metal electrodes measure a change in conductivity or electrical impedance of an electrical current

  • change is caused by formation of fibrin

  • after clotting, the current is interrupted → timer stops


electromechanical

86
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what methodology is described?

  • change in viscosity is measured

  • metal ball oscillates in a magnetic field

  • fibrin clotting increases viscosity and inhibits the ball → timer stops


electromagnetic

87
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what methodology is described?

  • initial light transmission is measured

  • increased optical density → electrical signal

  • fibrin strands decrease light transmission


turbidity

88
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increased optical density = increased light ______________

absorbance

89
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what methodology is described?

  • variation of photometric end point detection

  • 90 degree side scatter or 180 degree forward angle

  • measures scattered light

  • clot curve generated

  • quantitative → not functional


nephelometry

90
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what methodology is described?

  • latex particles are coated with monoclonal Abs

  • light is passed through suspension

  • increased agglutination → increased light absorbance → increased antigen level


immunologic

91
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D-dimer testing is an example of an ______________ methodology

immunologic

92
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what methodology is described?

  • POC analyzer

  • evaluates in vivo hemostasis from clotting → clot lysis

  • measures time at the start, strength, and dissolution of the clot

  • used for bleeding during surgery, hypercoagulability, and dysfunctions of hemostasis


thrombelastography (TEG)