Long test isbb sy 2023-2024

George Snell, Jean Dausset, and _____ are credited for the discovery of the MHC.

a. Susumu Tonegawa

b. Elie Metchnikoff

c. Baruj Beneceraf

d. Katalin Kariko

c. Baruj Beneceraf

Louis Pasteur utilized this method to weaken the rabies

virus to be viable for vaccine usage

a. Pasteurization

b. Attenuation

c. Opsonization

d. Sterilization

b. Attenuation

Skin, lactic acid in sweat, pH balance, mucous, and the

motion of cilia represent which type of immunity

a. Natural

b. Acquired

c. Adaptive

d. Auto

a. Natural

Wilson's disease is characterized by:

a. Increased ceruloplasmin in the plasma

b. Defective ceruloplasmin receptors

c. Increased copper in tissues

d. All of the above

c. Increased copper in tissues

Which of the following human diseases is primarily

caused by a defect in the innate immune system?

a. IL-1 receptor-associated kinase 4 (IRAK4) deficiency

b. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

c. X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA)

d. DiGeorge syndrome

a. IL-1 receptor-associated kinase 4 (IRAK4) deficiency

A lymphokine is

a. A soluble mediator produced by granulocytes and

affecting lymphocytes

b. A soluble mediator produced by lymphocytes

c. A soluble mediator produced by plasma cells

d. An antibody that reacts with lymphocytes

b. A soluble mediator produced by lymphocytes

Macrophages produce which of the following proteins

during antigen processing?

a. IL-1 and IL-6

b. y-Interferon

c. IL-4, IL-5, and IL-10

d. Complement components C1 and C3

a. IL-1 and IL-6

A patient is immunized for rubella. What type of immunity

does this patient have?

a. Active

b. Passive

c. Adoptive

d. Natural

a. Active

Macrophages play a major role in the mononuclear phagocytic system. For an antibody-coated antigen to be phagocytized, what part of the antibody molecule fits into a receptor on the phagocytic cell?

a. Fc region

b. Fab region

c. Variable Region

d. Hinge Region

a. Fc region

Which of the following functions cannot be performed by

IgA?

a. Binding Fce receptors on mast cells

b. Blocking pathogen adhesion

c. Facilitation of antibody-dependent cellular

cytotoxicity

d. Mucosal transport

a. Binding Fce receptors on mast cells

Activation of complement is one mechanism by which antibodies can kill cells. However, not all antibodies can bind complement, and some bind it better than others. Of the following isotypes, which one activates complement best?

a. IgA

b. IgG4

c. IgE

d. IgG3

d. IgG3

Which of the following subclasses of IgG are associated

with anti-phospholipid antibodies?

a. IgG1 and IgG3

b. IgG2 and IgG4

c. IgG1 and IgG4

d. IgG2 and IgG3

b. IgG2 and IgG4

The key structural difference that distinguishes immunoglobulin subclasses is the:

a. Stereometry of the hypervariable region

b. Covalent linkage of the light chains

c. The sequence of the constant regions

d. Number of domains

c. The sequence of the constant regions

Multiple, Homogeneous, narrow bands age seen in the gamma zone on CS electrophoresis on agarose gel. Immunofixation indicates that the bands are primarily IgG. This may indicate which of the following diseases?

a. Addison's disease

b. Myasthenia gravis

c. Multiple sclerosis

d. Multiple myeloma

c. Multiple sclerosis

A child has severe hay fever. A total IgE measurement was

performed by the Ouchterlony immunodiffusion method. No lines of precipitation appeared on the immunodiffusion plate. The most likely explanation is:

a. IgE is in too low a concentration to be detected by this method

b. IgE antibodies are not produced in children who have hay fever

c. hay fever is mediated by the cellular system

d. IgA is the antibody commonly produced in people with hay fever

a. IgE is in too low a concentration to be detected by this method

How are cytotoxic T cells (TC cells) and natural killer (NK) cells similar?

a . They both recognize antigen using MHC II molecules

b . They both do not bind to infected cells

C. They are both effective against virus-infected cells

d. They both need require antibodies to be present

C. They are both effective against virus-infected cells

T regulator cells, responsible for controlling autoimmune

antibody production, express which of the following

phenotypes?

a. CD3, CD8, CD25

b. CD3, CD4, CD8

c. CD3, CD4, CD25

d. CD8, CD4, CD25

b. CD3, CD4, CD25

For TH cells, a functional T-dell receptor requires all of the

following except

a. the CD3 complex

b. Co-expression of CD4

c. Rearranged a and b chains

d. B2-microglobulin.

d. B2-microglobulin.

Interaction between B and T helper cells involves

a. MHC I molecule on B cell binding to MHC I molecule on

the T cell

b. MHC I molecule on B cell binding to CD3 on the T cell

c. Foreign antigen on B cell binding to T cell receptor

d. CD3 molecule on B cell binding to T cell receptor

c. Foreign antigen on B cell binding to T cell receptor

Patient J is currently suffering from frequent sneezing,

headaches, and sinus pressure. RAST shows a high level of

epsilon immunoglobulins. Identify which cytokines caused these

phenomena:

I. IFN-a II. IFN-B III. IL-1B IV. IL-4 V. IL-5

A. I, II,

B. IV, V

C. II, III, IV, V

D. I,II,III, IV, V

B. IV, V

Which of the following is not an expected output of the

complement system?

a. Phagocytosis of microbe

b. Production of antibodies

c. Recruitment of leukocytes

d. Osmotic lysis of microbes

b. Production of antibodies

A patient has been having recurrent infections with medium to severe fever. Their physician requested for RID assay of their complement proteins. Upon assay, they showed a low level of C3. Which of the following statements is probably true?

a. She has Agammaglobulinemia

b. She is still producing an inactive form of C2, the

precursor for C3

c. She has an autoimmune disease that consumes C3

d. She has decreased production of C3

c. She has an autoimmune disease that consumes C3

Which of the following HLAs is mostly associated to

Myasthenia Gravis, Celiac Disease, and DM Type 1?

a. HLA-DR3

b. HLA-DR4

c. HLA-B8

d. HLA-B9

c. HLA-B8

Disparity of the HLA proteins between a transplant donor

and the recipient results in —

a. Immune tolerance

b. Immune activation

c. Transplant engraftment

d. No immune effect

b. Immune activation

In solid-organ transplantation a characteristic of

hyperacute rejection is —

a. That it usually occurs within 48 hours of transplantation

b. That it involves the new development of anti-HLA antibodies

c. That it is mostly mediated by T cells

d. That treatment based on steroids is usually successful.

a. That it usually occurs within 48 hours of transplantation

What organism is utilized in Capillary Agglutination Test

that detects Q fever agglutinins?

a. Coxiella burnetii

b. Salmonella typhii

c. Rickettsia rickettsii

d. Pneumocystis jirovecii

a. Coxiella burnetii

A patient suspected of having syphilis had various tests performed with the following results: RPR - reactive

FTA-Abs - nonreactive VDRL (CSF) - nonreactive

These test results best reflect which of the following?

a. Neurosyphilis

b. Biological False positive

c. Primary stage syphilis

d. Early primary stage syphilis

b. Biological False positive

The air temperature throughout the serology laboratory is

20 C. How will this affect VDRL and RPR test results?

a. No effect - the acceptable test range is 20-24 C

b. Weaken reactions so that false-negative occur

c. Strengthen reactions so that positive titers appear elevated

d. Increase the number of false-positive from spontaneous

clumping

b. Weaken reactions so that false-negative occur

Given the following results for an ASO procedure, how would the patient result be reported?

Todd Units 12 50 100 125 166 250 RBC cont SLO cont

Hemolysis - - - - + + + +

a. Patient value is reported as 166 Todd units

b. Patient value is reported as 250 Todd units

c. Patient test should be repeated due to erroneous RBC control

d. Patient test should be repeated due to erroneous SLO control

c. Patient test should be repeated due to erroneous RBC control

A patient exhibits gray to white lesions on their mouth and

genitals. Upon qualitative RPR, the patient tested positive then proceeded to quantitative RPR. Interpret the following results:

RPR titer: 1:8 - weakly reactive; 1:8-1:64 - reactive

a. Prozone

b. Postzone

c. Equivalence

d. Testing Error

a. Prozone

An appropriate description of the PaulBunnell test is:

a. Distinguishes between heterophile antibodies; uses beef

erythrocytes, guinea pig kidney cells, and sheep erythrocytes.

b. Detects heterophile antibodies and uses horse erythrocytes.

c. Detects heterophile antibodies and uses sheep erythrocytes.

d. Detects heterophile antibodies and uses rabbit erythrocytes.

c. Detects heterophile antibodies and uses sheep erythrocytes.

In an indirect ELISA method designed to detect rubella

antibody, the conjugate used should be:

a. Anti-human IgG conjugated to an enzyme

b. Anti-rubella antibody conjugated to an enzyme

c. Rubella antigen conjugated to an enzyme

d. Anti-rubella antibody conjugated to a substrate

a. Anti-human IgG conjugated to an enzyme

What parameter is considered as the most sensitive indicator

in measuring the effectiveness of antiretroviral treatment of

an HIV-infected patient?

a. CD4:CD8 ratio

b. HIV Antibody titer

c. Total T-cell count

d. HIV viral load

d. HIV viral load

An 18-year-old woman presents with a history of recurrent

respiratory tract infections in the past 3 months. She has been previously healthy. Which of the following is the most likely cause of immunodeficiency in this patient?

a. Severe combined immunodeficiency

b. HIV infection

Ac. X-linked agammaglobulinemia

d. Hyper-IgM syndrome

b. HIV infection

Assess the disease state of the patient with the following

results: HBAg - positive HBeAg - positive Anti-HBc - positive

Anti-HBe - negative Anti-HBsAg - negative

a. Incubation period for Hepatitis B infection

b. Very early infection with Hepatitis B

c. Highly infectious stage of Hepatitis B infection

d. Immunity to Hepatitis B

c. Highly infectious stage of Hepatitis B infection

Which of the following tests is considered the gold

standard for the diagnosis of Histoplasmosis?

a. Culture

b. Complement fixation

c. Immunodiffusion

d. Nucleic acid probe

a. Culture

In Indirect Fluorescent Antibody Testing for T. gondii, a

false positive result expected for patients with:

a. Low titers of antibody

b. Active tachyzoites in the tissues

c. SLE as their primary disease

d. Plasmodium falciparum co-infection

c. SLE as their primary disease

The detection of malarial infection through immunologic

methods is least effective during what stage of the parasite?

a. Gametocyte

b. Sporozoite

c. Merozoite

d. Hypnozoite

d. Hypnozoite

Autoantibodies of the Graves' disease mimics the action of

the thyroid stimulating hormone by:

a. Binding to TSH receptors

b. Attacking the thyroid peroxidase

c. Inhibition of the release of thyroglobulin

d. Binding with the TSH to form Ab-TSH complexes

a. Binding to TSH receptors

Which of the following autoimmune diseases is caused by the cross-reactivity of antibodies originally produced to counter infections?

a. Rheumatic Fever

b. Pernicious Anemia

c. Hashimoto's thyroiditis

d. Rheumatoid Arthritis

a. Rheumatic Fever

A 30-year-old female consulted her physician because she had been experiencing symptoms of loss of weight, join pain in the hands and the knees, and extreme fatigue. Her laboratory results were as follows:

RF rapid slide test positive at 1:10

ANA rapid slide test positive at 1:40

RBC 3.5 × 1012/L

WBC count 5.8 × 109 /L

What further testing would best help the physician distinguish between RA and SLE?

a. Crithidia lucillae

b. ELISA

c. ANA

d. PCR

a. Crithidia lucillae

A person is suspected of having testicular cancer. Which

type of hCG test would be most useful?

a. Plasma immunoassay for intact hCG only

b. Plasma immunoassay for intact hCG and the B-hCG subunit

c. Plasma immunoassay for the free alpha and B-hCG subunits

d. Urine assay for hCG ß core

b. Plasma immunoassay for intact hCG and the B-hCG subunit

A patient suffers from muscle and joint pain, chest pain, and

hair loss, with a fever of 110 F. Upon testing for complement

levels of C2, C3, and C4 via RID, all resulted in low levels of

concentration, especially C3. What is the most probable type of hypersensitivity reaction is the patient suffering from?

a. Type I

b. Type Il

c. Type III

d. Type IV

c. Type III

A person is suspected of having testicular cancer. Which

type of hCG test would be most useful?

a. Plasma immunoassay for intact hCG only

b. Plasma immunoassay for intact hCG and the B-hCG subunit

c. Plasma immunoassay for the free alpha and B-hCG subunits

d. Urine assay for hCG ß core

b. Plasma immunoassay for intact hCG and the B-hCG subunit

A patient suffers from muscle and joint pain, chest pain, and

hair loss, with a fever of 110 F. Upon testing for complement

levels of C2, C3, and C4 via RID, all resulted in low levels of

concentration, especially C3. What is the most probable type of hypersensitivity reaction is the patient suffering from?

a. Type I

b. Type Il

c. Type III

d. Type IV

c. Type III

Unlabeled and labeled antigen compete for unlimited number of antibody binding sites. This causes label detection to be directly proportional to the concentration of the analyte.

a. First statement is true, second statement is false

b. First statement is false, second statement is true

c. Both statements are false

d. Both statements are true

c. Both statements are false

Delta checks can be done to discover or confirm errors in the results of the patient by comparing it to:

a. Patient's own previous results

b. Another patient's results

c. A standard used by the machine

d. Confirmed pathologic samples

a. Patient's own previous results

Immunoelectrophoresis differs from immunofixation

electrophoresis by:

a. Proteins from the patient sample are separated by

electrophoresis

b. Reagent antibodies are placed in a trough in the agar

c. Precipitin arcs are developed by ag-ab complexes

d. Cellulose acetate strips are utilized

b. Reagent antibodies are placed in a trough in the agar

Radioactivity by the excitation of radioactive labels such as

3H and 125l can be detected by:

a. Geiger Counter

b. Quadruple Time-of-flight Mass Spectrometry

c. Harmonic Oscillation Densitometry

d. Gamma Scintillation Counter

d. Gamma Scintillation Counter

A patient's serum is being analyzed in a sandwich assay. This patient has received mouse monoclonal antibody therapy, and shows a false positive reaction in the sandwich assay, which is due to:

a. The mouse antibody in the patient's serum reacting to the antigen

b. The presence of human anti-mouse antibody activity

c. Antibody to a mouse virus

d. Production of a monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance

after the antibody treatment

b. The presence of human anti-mouse antibody activity

A mother has the red cell phenotype D+C+E-c-e+ with anti - c (titer of 32 at AHG) in her serum. The father has the phenotype D + C + E - c + e +. The baby is Rh - negative and not affected with hemolytic disease of the newborn. What is the baby's most probable Rh genotype?

A. r'r'

B. r'r

C. R 1 1

D. R i r

A. r'r'

Which of the following distinguishes A1 from A2 blood groups?

A. A2 antigen will not react with anti-A; A1 will react strongly (4+)

B. An A2 person may form anti-Al; an A1 person wil not form anti-A1

C. An Al person may form anti-A2, an A2 person will not form anti-A1

D. A2 antigen will not react with anti-A from a nonimmunized donor; A1 will react

with any anti-A

B. An A2 person may form anti-Al; an A1 person wil not form anti-A1

Acquired B antigens have been found in:

A. Bombay individuals

B. Group 0 persons

c. All blood groups

D. Group A persons

D. Group A persons

What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO as well as the auto control are positive?

A. Wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb the serum at 4C

B. Retype the sample using a different lot number of reagents

C. Use polyclonal typing reagents

D. Report the sample as group AB

A. Wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb the serum at 4C

Which genotype usually shows the strongest reaction with anti-D?

A DCE/DCE

B. Dce/dCe

c D-/D-

D. -CE/-ce

c D-/D-

Which of the following is a characteristic of Kidd system antibodies?

A. Usually IgM antibodies

B. Corresponding antigens are destroyed by enzymes - enhanced

c. Usually strong and stable during storage

D. Often implicated in delayed HTRs

D. Often implicated in delayed HTRs

Which of the following antibodies has been clearly implicated in transfusion reactions and hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A. Anti-I

B. Anti-K

C. Anti-Lea x

D. Anti-N

B. Anti-K

Which of the following antibodies does not match the others in terms of optimal reactive temperature?

A. Anti-Fya

B. Anti-Jk'

C. Anti-N

D. Anti-U

C. Anti-N

Some antigens that are primarily found on white blood cells can occur on erythrocytes. Which of the following are the red blood cell equivalents of human leukocyte antigens (HLAs)?

A. Lea, Leb

B. Bga, Bgb, Bg°

с. Кр". Кр. Кр

D. Do', Do

B. Bga, Bgb, Bg°

If anti-K reacts 3+ with a donor cell with a genotype KK and 2+ with a Kk cell, the antibody is demonstrating:

A. Dosage

B. Linkage disequilibrium

c. Homozygosity

D. Heterozygosity

A. Dosage

What blood type is not possible for an offspring of an

AO and BO mating?

A. AB

в. А or В

C. O

D. All are possible

D. All are possible

An important determinant of platelet viability following storage is:

A. Plasma potassium concentration

B. Plasma pH

c. Prothrombin time

D. Activated partial thromboplastin time

B. Plasma pH

After checking the inventory, it was noted that there were no units on the shelf marked "May Issue as Uncrossmatched: For Emergency Only, Which of the following should be placed on this shelf?

A. 1 unit of each of the ABO blood groups

B. Units of group 0, Ddel Whole Blood

C. Units of group 0, D null Red Blood Cells

D. Any units that are expiring at midnight

C. Units of group 0, D null Red Blood Cells

A patient showed positive results with screening cells and 4 donor units. The patient autocontrol was negative. What is the most likely antibody?

A. Anti-H

B. Anti-S

c. Anti-Kpa

D. Anti-k

D. Anti-k

What corrective action should be taken when rouleaux causes positive test results?

A. Perform a saline replacement technique

B. Perform an autoabsorption

c. Run a panel

D. Perform an elution

A. Perform a saline replacement technique

How long must a recipient sample be kept in the blood bank following compatibility testing?

A. 3 days

B. 5 days

c. 7 days

D. 10 days

c. 7 days

How would autoantibodies affect compatibility testing?

A. No effect

B. The DAT would be positive

c. ABO, Rh, antibody screen, and crossmatch may show abnormal results

D. Results would depend on the specificity of autoantibody

D. Results would depend on the specificity of autoantibody

A donor was found to contain anti-k using pilot tubes from the collection procedure. How would this affect the compatibility test?

A. The AHG major crossmatch would be positive

B. The IS (immediate spin) major crossmatch would be positive

C. The recipient's antibody screen would be positive for anti-D. Compatibility testing would not be affected

D. Compatibility testing would not be affected

Which of the following is expected to produce negative agglutination result post-enzyme treatment?

A. Lewis

B. Rh

C Duffy

D. SSU

C Duffy

Which of the following may be processed to neutralize suspected anti-pl antibody?

A. Hydatid cyst fluid

B. Plasma from bird handlers

c. Plasma from person infected with fascioliasis D.)

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

D. All of the above

An antibody is detected in a pregnant woman and is suspected of being the cause of fetal distress. The antibody reacts at the IAT phase but does not react with DTT-treated cells. This antibody causes in vitro hemolysis. What is the most likely antibody specificity?

A. Anti-Lea

B. Anti-Lua

C. Anti-Lub

D. Anti-Xga

C. Anti-Lub

Which procedure would help to distinguish between an anti-e and anti-Fya in an antibody mixture?

A. Lower the ph of test serum

B. Run an enzyme panel

c. Use a thiol reagent

D. Run a LISS panel

B. Run an enzyme panel

A patient is suspected of having paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH). Which pattern of reactivity is characteristic of the Donath- Landsteiner antibody, which causes this condition?

A. The antibody attaches to RBCs an 4 and causes hemolysis at 37C

B. The antibody attaches to RBCs at 37C and causes agglutination at the IAT

phase

C. The antibody attaches to RBCs at 22C and causes hemolysis at 37C

D. The antibody attaches to RBCs and causes agglutination at the IAT phase

A. The antibody attaches to RBCs at 4C and causes hemolysis at 37C

Deferral period for donors who have received HBIg

A. No deferral

B. 12 months

c. 1 week

D. Permanent deferral

B. 12 months

Prior to blood donation, the intended venipuncture site must be cleaned with a scrub solution containing:

A Hypochlorite

B. Green soap

c. 10% acetone

D. Povidone lodine

D. Povidone lodine

A woman wants to donate blood. Her physical examination reveals the following: weight -110 lbs, pulse - 90 bpm, blood pressure -110/90 mm Hg, hemoglobin- 12.0 g/di, hematocrit-

39%. Which of the following exclusions applies to the prospective donor?

A. Pulse too high

B. Weight too low

Hemoglobin too low

D. Blood pressure too high

Hemoglobin too low

What should happen to a unit of blood obtained from a donor who is determined to be at a high risk of developing acquired immune deficiency syndrome

(AIDS)?

A. Until the donor's diagnosis is confirmed, place the unit in isolation.

B. Utilize the blood for AIDS-related research.

C. Make sure the unit is disposed of properly by autoclaving or incineration.

D. Red blood cells should be destroyed and use the plasma.

C. Make sure the unit is disposed of properly by autoclaving or incineration.

A donor reports that throughout the previous 36 hours, he has consumed two aspirin tablets daily. The blood unit is:

5 days - pit aphersis (SD)

A. Not recommended for manufacture of pooled platelet concentrate.

B. Wait 36 hours after discontinuing aspirin consumption before being drawn.

C. Suitable for preparing pooled platelet concentrates

D. May be utilized to produce fresh -frozen plasma and red blood cells, however platelets must to be thrown away.

C. Suitable for preparing pooled platelet concentrates

Which of the following RBC storage lesions parameters will be increased?

I. Glucose, ATP

II. Lactic acid, 2,3-DPG

III. Plasma K+, hemoglobin

IV. pH, Lactic acid, hemoglobin

A. IV

B. III

C. II, III

D. II, II, IV

B. III

Which of the following statements is incorrect about benefits of RBC additive solutions?

A. Extends the shelf-life of RBCs to 42 days

B. Allows for the harvesting of more platelets

C. Produces pRBC of higher viscosity

D. None of them is incorrect

C. Produces pRBC of higher viscosity

Most commonly used cryoprotective agent for

RBC freezing

A. Saline

B. Dextrose

C. Glycerol

D. Inosine

C. Glycerol

Which of the following is approved for bacterial detection specific to extending the expiration of apheresed platelets to 7 days?

А. ВасТ/ALERT

B. eBDS

c. Gram stain

D. Pan Genera Detection (PGD) test

D. Pan Genera Detection (PGD) test

Which of the following platelet storage lesions parameters will be decreased?

1. Lactate, pH, ATP

Il. Morphology scores change, Degranulation

I. pH, ATP

IV. Lactate, platelet activation markers, pH

A. I, II

B. III, IV

C. IV only

D. Ill only

D. Ill only

Which of the following pairs correctly?

1 Fibrinogen deficiency - cryoprecipitate reduced plasma ~ Il. Sickle cell disease - washed RBCs

Ill. Hemophilia A - FVIII concentrate

IV. Refractory platelet response - HLA matched apheresis platelets

A land Il

B. Ill and IV

c. Il and IV

D. Il and III

B. Ill and IV

Irradiation of a unit of RBC is done to prevent the replication of donor:

A. Granulocytes

B. Lymphocytes

c. Red cells

D. Platelets

B. Lymphocytes

A single unit of FFP or PF24 should contain ______ mL of plasma.

a. 100-150

b. 200-400

c. 150-250

d. 50-150

B 200-400

If the seal is entered or broken on a unit of red blood cells stored at 1-6 degrees Celsius, what is the maximum allowable storage period, in hours?

A. 6

B. 24

c. 48

D. 72

B. 24

Upon inspection, a unit of apheresis platelets is noted to have visible clots, but otherwise appears normal. The technologist should:

A. Issue without concern

B. Filter to remove clots

C. Centrifuge to express off the clots

D Quarantine for Gram stain and culture

D Quarantine for Gram stain and culture

Which of the following must be verified in the transfusion service prior to the issue of blood products?

A. Antibody detection test result

B. Date and time when the patient's blood sample was drawn

C. Name of the transfusionist administering the blood product

D. Expiration date and, if applicable, expiration time of the blood product

D. Expiration date and, if applicable, expiration time of the blood product

Which of the following must be performed on a patient before, during, and after receiving a blood transfusion?

A. Blood pressure, pulse, respiration rate, and temperature

B. Blood pressure, pulse, temperature, and urine occult blood

C. Blood pressure, temperature, respiration rate and hematocrit

D. Blood pressure, temperature, pulse and hematocrit

A. Blood pressure, pulse, respiration rate, and temperature

The use of plasma from only male donors for transfusion is a preventive method for which type of transfusion reaction:

A. Febrile

B. TRALI

C. Allergic

D. TACO

B. TRALI

What blood group system antibodies are commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?

A. Rh

B. ABO

C. MNS

D. Kidd

D. Kidd

Which of the following blood components is the only capable of transmitting T. pallidum?

A. FFP

B. Cryoprecipitate

C. Packed RBCs

D. Platelets

D. Platelets

Which of the following are mandatory tests for screening donor's blood for transfusion transmissible infections in the Philippines:

A. HIV Ag/Ab, HBsAg, HCV Ag/Ab, Anti-TP, Malaria Ag/Ab

B. HIV Ag/Ab, HBsAg, Anti-HBc, HCV Ag/Ab, Anti-HTLV I/II, Trypanosoma cruzi, HBV-DNA, HCV-DRNA, HIV1-RNA, WNV RNA, Zika RNA, Anti-TP, NAT for Babesia spp.

c. HIV Ag/Abm HBsAg, HCV Ag/Ab, Anti-TP, Malaria Ag/Ab, HIV1/2 RNA, HCV RNA, HBV DNA

D. HIV Ag/Ab, HBsAg, Anti-HBc, HCV Ag/Ab, Anti-TP, Malaria Ag/Ab

A. HIV Ag/Ab, HBsAg, HCV Ag/Ab, Anti-TP, Malaria Ag/Ab

What is the primary reason that infectious agents can be transmitted following blood transfusion?

A. Pathogen reduction technology failure

B. Donor in the window period of early infection

C. Leukocyte-reduction failure

D. Donor history questionnaire not completed

B. Donor in the window period of early infection

The quality system essentials are applied to:

A. The blood bank's management staff

B. Blood bank quality control activities

C. Blood component manufacturing

D. The blood bank's path of workflow

D. The blood bank's path of workflow

Which of the following is not a basic component of a QA program?

A. Calibration

B. Preventive maintenance

C. Viral marker testing

D. Record keeping

C. Viral marker testing

Components of an information system consist of all of the following except:

A. Hardware

B. Software

C. Validation

D. People

C. Validation

One of the most economical disinfectants to use is a:

A. 1:10 fresh solution of sodium hypochlorite (bleach)

B. 1:5 solution of household Lysol

c. 1:15 solution of sodium hydroxide

D. Detergent and water mixture

A. 1:10 fresh solution of sodium hypochlorite (bleach)