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prenatal (antenatal)
pertaining to any event that exist in the embryo or the mother during the period between conception & delivery of the infant.
screening test
any test that separates those who are not, or who would not be, affected by the disease from those who are at risk for it & who will be given further test. A simple ___ for the purpose of uncovering a disease condition that is treatable.
Diagnostic Test (clinical diagnosis)
based on physical examination, & the patients history; does not include laboratory test
laboratory examination
diagnosis arrived after laboratory study of specimens taken from the patient
high risk pregnancy
one in which a concurrent disorder, pregnancy related complication or external factor jeopardizes the health of the mother, fetus or both.
etiology
study of causation/ from the Greek word etio-, which means 'causation' and -ology, which refers to the scientific study of something/ the cause or origin of a disease or abnormal condition
Risk Factor (RF)
a causative factor/ attributes, characteristics or exposures that increase the likelihood of a person for developing a disease or health disorder (age, sex, family health history ----- linked to disability, disease or death)
contributing factor (CF)
the practices and environmental conditions that lead to outbreaks/ preventable causes of outbreaks--- lifestyle, poor health habit
(1) SIgns and (2) Symptoms (S/Sx)
(1) are objective and externally observable (a doctor, or other person, notices)
(1) objective alteration that can be observed or measured by another person; pulse rate, blood pressure, temp., etc.
(2) are a person's reported subjective experiences (an individual experiences)
(2) subjective experiences reported by the person, complains such as pain, nausea, vomiting, etc.
predisposing factors
Factors or areas of susceptibility that promote the risks of the presenting problem
Ex. exposure to alcohol of the fetus in prenatal life and any genetic predisposition of mental illness
precipitating factors
These are factors, events, or stressors that initiate/ cause/ trigger/precipitate or promote the onset of any illness, disease, accident, or behavioral response (aggressive behavior)---
Ex. conflict about relationships, transitions, or identity
perpetuating factors
factors that maintain the disabling symptoms. Any condition or factors, either in the family or community that exaggerate the problem rather than solve it
Ex. lack of education, occupation, or financial stress
protective factors
factors that take into account the person’s skill, competency, talent, or any supportive element that helps the patient in facing and overcoming the predisposing, precipitating, and perpetuating factors
tocolysis
an obstetrical procedure carried out with the use of medications with the purpose of delaying the delivery of a fetus in women presenting preterm contractions.
tocolytics
medications used to suppress premature labor (used to slow or stop the contractions of a woman's uterus during pregnancy; they are typically given to women who are in preterm labor to try to delay birth for 1 to 2 days).
“pathos” =
“physis” =
“logos” =
suffering
nature, origin
the study of
pathophysiology or physiopathology
refers to the study of abnormal changes in body functions that are the causes, consequences, or concomitants of disease processes
pathophysiology
risk factors
clinical manifestation
diagnostics
nursing interventions and patient teaching
medications
possible complications
the disease process (PRCDNMP)
disease
a condition in which the presence oof an abnormality of the body causes a loss of normal health
idiopathic
iatrogenic
congenital
acquired
nosocomial
types of a disease
idiopathic
no identifiable causes
iatrogenic
occurs as a result from medical treatment
congenital
disease existing at birth or before births, involves in the development of fetus
acquired
develops post-fetally
nosocomial
due to being in a hospital environments
pathogenesis
is a mechanism of the disease which etiology operates to produce the pathological and clinical manifestation
ex: inflammation, degeneration, immune response
complication
is the onset of further diseases in a person who is already suffering from another existing disease
diagnosis
refers to the process of attempting to determine or identify a possible disease of disorder
prognosis
refers to the expected outcome of a disease
clinical manifestation
are the signs and symptoms or evidence of disease
epidemiology
is the study of patterns of disease occurrence and transmission among populations and by geographic areas
incidence of a disease
is the number of new cases occurring in specific time of period
prevalence of a disease
is the number of existing cases within a populations during the specific time of period
cellular adaptation
under normal conditions, cells must constantly adapt to changes in their environment (physiological, pathological)
atrophy
hypertrophy
hyperplasia
dysplasia
metaplasia
types of cellular adaptation
atrophy
the entire tissue or organs diminishes in size and function
may be due to decrease in workload, lost of nerve stimulating, lack of blood supply, inadequate nutrition, lost of endocrine stimulation and aging process
hypertrophy
increase the size of the cells and consequently the size of the organs
increased the synthesis of structural protein and organelles
can be physiologic and pathologic and adiposity of adipose tissue
hyperplasia
increase the number of cells in an organ or tissue (increase rate of cellular division)
hypertrophy and this are closely related
can be compensatory ___ (exp: liver), hormonal ___ (exp: uterus, breast) and pathological (exp: endometrium)
metaplasia
is a reversible change in which one adult cell type is replaced by another cell type
adaptation of cells that sensitive to particular stress to cell types and the adverse of environment
dysplasia
atypical hyperplasia
abnormal changes in the size, shape, and organization of mature cells
strongly associated with common neoplastic growth
nonlethal injury
lethal injury
types of cell injury:
cell degeneration
necrosis
cell degeneration (nonlethal injury)
manifested as an abnormality to biochemical function, structural changes or combination
its reversible but may become irreversible (necrosis/apoptosis)
may produce clinical disease
necrosis (lethal injury)
unprogrammed cell death and living tissues (opposite to apoptosis)
irreversible
accompanied with by biochemical and morphological changes
due to hypoxia, chemical substance, free radical, immunologic response, infections, etc.
oxygen deprivation
chemical agents
infectious agents
immunologic reactions
genetic defects
nutritional imbalances
physical agents
aging
causes of cell injury (OCIIGNPA)
hypoxia
oxygen deficiency
can also occur via:
lack of oxygen inside blood
reduction in oxygen carrying capacity in RBC (anemia)
carbon monoxide poisoning
ischemia
lost/lack of blood supply (due to arterial blockage or reduced venous drainage
oxygen deprivation
can occur via hypoxia or ischemia
chemical agents
membrane permeability
osmotic hemostasis
integrity of an enzyme
ex: poisons, air pollutants, insecticides, CO, asbestos, ethanol, therapeutic drugs, etc.
this agents can cause cell death by:
(1) altering ____
(2) altering ____
(3) altering ____
infectious agent
virus, bacteria, fungi, parasites, helminths
immunologic reactions
autoimmune disease- immunity against its own tissues. ex: SLE, Rheumatoid arthritis, etc.
genetic defects
abnormalities to the genomes - mutation
this chromosome anomaly is associated with missing, or irregularities or extra in portion of chromosomal DNA
down syndrome, Alzheimer’s disease, Huntington’s disease, etc.
nutritional imbalance
(1) kwashiorkor, marasmus
(2) osteoporosis
(3) scurvy
caused directly or indirectly by lack of essential nutrients (malnutrition)
or it may be related to excessive of food intake (diabetic mellitus)
ex: protein deficiency - (1) ___, __, calcium deficiency- (2) ___, vitamin c- (3) __
physical agents
trauma, extremes of temperature, radiation, electrical shock all have wide ranging effects on cells
aging
aged cells become larger, less able to divide and multiply
lose their ability to function, or function abnormally
magnesium sulfate
terbutaline
nifedipine
indomethacin
ketorolac
sulindac
common tocolytics agents (MTNIKS)
magnesium sulfate
(comments) may cause maternal flushing, lethargy, headache, weakness, dry mouth, pulmonary edema, cardiac arrest; may cause neonatal lethargy, hypotonia, respiratory depression; recommended by ACOG to reduce cerebral palsy risk
terbutaline
(comments) may cause maternal cardiac arrhythmias, pulmonary edema, myocardial ischemia, hypotension, tachycardia, metabolic abnormalities, nausea, vomiting, fever, hallucinations; may cause neonatal tachycardia, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, hyperbilirubinemia, hypotension, intraventricular hemorrhage
nifedipine
(comments) may cause maternal flushing, headache, dizziness, nausea, transient hypotension; no fetal or neonatal effects reported
indomethacin
(comments) may cause maternal nausea, heartburn; may cause neonatal constriction of ductus arteriosus, pulmonary hypertension, decreased renal function, intraventricular hemorrhage, hyperbilirubinemia, necrotizing enterocolitis
ketorolac
sulindac
(comments) no maternal, fetal, or neonatal effects reported
13 visits:
7 in first 7 months
2 in 8th month
4 in 9th month
the ideal antenatal visits
1: as soon as the pregnancy is suspected (for registration & first check-up
2: 26 weeks
3: 32 weeks
4 36 weeks
minimum antenatal visits
CBC W/PLT
BT, Rh factor determination
UA (Benedict's sugar and Acetic Acid Tests-Albumin)
STI screening
Blood sugar screening (FBS, OGTT, HbA1c)
Preg. test, UTZ
Cervical CA screening using Acetic acid wash
Papanicolau smear
8 laboratory exams
prenatal blood and urine tests
are essential tools during pregnancy, from confirming pregnancy to monitoring fetal development to ruling out pregnancy complications and more
pregnancy urine test
when: 7 days after missed period
why: to confirm pregnancy
routine urine tests
when: all or most visits
why: to rule out UTIs, gestational diabetes, and preeclampsia
provides essential clues in terms of her well-being and potential signs of complications
pregnancy blood test
when: 7 days after missed period
why: to confirm pregnancy
detects the presence of hCG to confirm she is pregnant
it can detect pregnancy sooner than urine tests, they are typically done after a positive urine pregnancy tests, mainly due to their higher cost
1st prenatal visit blood work
when: after positive urine test
why: to check mother’s health status
maternal serum screening
when: at 11-14 weeks & 15-20 weeks
why: to evaluate risk for chromosomal abnormalities
glucose challenge screening
when: at 24th & 28th weeks
why: to rule out gestational diabetes
prenatal urine tests
is a quick and inexpensive way to monitor a woman’s health during pregnancy and catch abnormalities early on; also called urinalysis
bacteria
sugar
protein
a urinalysis will be used to detect the following:
__ a sign of a UTI
__ might be a sign of gestational diabetes
__ might indicate preeclampsia
prenatal blood tests
comes at an even larger variety than prenatal urine tests. they will also be used at specific points throughout gestation or when additional needs arise.
maternal blood type
Rh factor
immunity
sexually transmitted disease
complete blood count
first prenatal visit blood work is done to comprehensively screen for the following:
__ in case a woman should require a blood transfusion
__ a protein on the RBC
__ to rubella, varicella, and tuberculosis from past disease or vaccination
__ syphilis, hep B, HIV, and others, if so instructed by a doctor
__ anemia, blood clotting, vitamin deficiencies, and overall health status
at 11-14 weeks (first trimester); nuchal translucency
(what week range) it evaluates the risk for aneuploidy (missing or extra genes), which is done with ultrasound exam called __ as part of the ___
at 15-20 weeks (second trimester)
also called quad screen or multiple marker screen, it screens for both aneuploidy and neural tube defects, alongside an anomaly ultrasound as part of the _____
non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT)
women at a higher risk for chromosomal problems due to their age or family history or those with abnormal results of the first trimester maternal blood serum might also undergo a ______ around the 10th week — it is a new prenatal blood test that screens mother’s blood for evidence of fetal chromosomal abnormalities
qualitative
quantitative
pregnancy blood tests comes in 2 varieties: (1) confirm the presence of hCG ____ and those that determine its exact amounts in the blood (2) ___
Ultrasound (UTZ) or transvaginal ultrasound
it is performed in early pregnancy due to rule out ectopic pregnancy and evaluate the risk of a miscarriage, especially when the results of a blood test are inconclusive or a woman presents with vaginal bleeding or abdominal pain
used to measure embryo development and rule out complications
fetal development
within a few minutes
dipstick
vertical lines
getting an accurate and reliable pregnancy confirmation in a quick manner can determine subsequent (1) __ and help women get started with prenatal care.
the results of urine pregnancy tests are available (2)__ . the results can be marked on the (3)__ in a variety of ways, most commonly (4)__; however, some tests use plus and minus signs or “pregnant/not pregnant” labels
positive
(type of UPT test result) pregnant; hCG is present in urine; should confirm with a blood test
negative
(type of UPT test result) not pregnant; no hCG detected in urine
faint positive
(type of UPT test result) most probably pregnant; re-testing is recommended to rule out an error
false positive
(type of UPT test result) not pregnant; positive results might indicate an ectopic pregnancy, miscarriage, or medication side effects
false negative
(type of UPT test result) pregnant; negative results occurred from taking the test too early or incorrectly
gestational sac
yolk sac
fetal pole
fetal heartbeat
no gestational sac with hCG higher than 1,500 mIU/mL
yolk sac present but not fetal pole at 7 weeks
fetal pole present but no heartbeat at 7 weeks
transvaginal ultrasound:
week 5:
week 5 1/2:
week 6:
week 6-8:
evidence of ectopic pregnancy
follow up TZ in 1 week; potential error in pregnancy dating; if gestational sac is larger than 16-18 mm with no fetal pole, miscarriage is confirmed
follow up UTZ in 1 week; if fetal pole is 5 mm with no heartbeat, miscarriage is confirmed
≥25 mIU/mL
6-24 mIU/mL
≤5 mIU/mL
pregnancy blood test:
__: pregnant
__: possibly pregnant; re-testing a day or 2 later is recommended
__: not pregnant; could mean an early miscarriage. ectopic pregnancy, or medication effects