Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th ed.

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72 Terms

1
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Which feature is characteristic of cell apoptosis?

A. Enlarged swollen size

B. Disrupted plasma membrane

C. Adjacent inflammation

D. Intact cellular contents

Intact cellular contents

2
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This type of necrosis is encountered most often in foci of tuberculosis infection and has a friable yellow-white appearance.

A. Coagulative necrosis

B. Caseous necrosis

C. Gangrenous necrosis

D. Liquefactive necrosis

Caseous necrosis

3
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Shrinkage in the size of the cell by the loss of cell substance is known as ____.

A. Atrophy

B. Hyperplasia

C. Metaplasia

D. Dysplasia

Atrophy

4
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What is the correct sequence in the mechanism of leukocyte migration through blood vessels?

A. Rolling, Integrin activation by chemokines, Adhesion, Migration

B. Migration, Adhesion, Integrin activation by chemokines, Rolling

C. Adhesion, Integrin activation by chemokines, Rolling, Migration

D. Migration, Rolling, Adhesion, Integrin activation by chemokines

Rolling, Integrin activation by chemokines, Adhesion, Migration

5
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Macrophages are a type of cell likely to be involved in response to each of the following injuries except:

A. Pulmonary fibrosis

B. Acute respiratory distress syndrome

C. Atherosclerosis

D. Rheumatoid arthritis

Acute respiratory distress syndrome

6
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In ___________, there is an outpouring of a watery, relatively protein-poor fluid that derives either from the plasma or from the secretions of mesothelial cells lining the peritoneal, pleural and pericardial cavities.

A. Fibrinous inflammation

B. Suppurative inflammation

C. Serous inflammation

D. Chronic inflammation

Serous inflammation

7
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Large (1 to 2 cm) subcutaneous hematomas also known as bruises.

A. Petichiae

B. Purpura

C. Ecchymosis

D. Hematomas

Ecchymosis

8
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An uncommon, grave complication of labor and the immediate postpartum period; this type of embolism releases fluid into the maternal circulation via tears in the placental membrane and/or uterine vein rupture.

A. Fat embolism

B. Air embolism

C. Pulmonary thromboembolism

D. Amniotic fluid embolism

Amniotic fluid embolism

9
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____ shock results from low cardiac output due to loss of blood or plasma volume.

A. Septic

B. Hypovolemic

C. Cardiogenic

D. Anaphylactic

Hypovolemic

10
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During this stage of shock, reflex compensatory mechanisms are activated and vital organ perfusion is maintained.

A. Nonprogressive

B. Progressive

C. Irreversible

D. Final stage

Nonprogressive

11
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These hypersensitivity disorders involve antigen-antibody complexes that are formed in the circulation and may deposit in blood vessels, leading to complement activation and acute inflammation.

A. Immediate (type I) hypersensitivity

B. Antibody-mediated (type II) hypersensitivity

C. Immune complex mediated (type III) hypersensitivity

D. Cell-mediated (type IV) hypersensitivity

Immune complex mediated (type III) hypersensitivity

12
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Anaphylaxis, allergies and bronchial asthma (atopic forms) are prototypical disorders of this type of hypersensitivity:

A. Immediate (type I) hypersensitivity

B. Antibody-mediated (type II) hypersensitivity

C. Immune complex mediated (type III) hypersensitivity

D. Cell-mediated (type IV) hypersensitivity

Immediate (type I) hypersensitivity

13
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This syndrome is characterized by dry eyes and dry mouth, resulting from immune mediated destruction of the lacrimal and salivary glands.

A. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

B. Rheumatoid arthritis

C. Sjogren Syndrome

D. Systemic Sclerosis

Sjogren Syndrome

14
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The 2010 highest estimated cancer deaths in both men and women is a result of this type of cancer.

A. Colon and rectum

B. Liver

C. Urinary bladder

D. Lung and bronchus

Lung and bronchus

15
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Which cell property is considered a "hallmark of cancer"?

A. Evasion of cell death

B. Development of sustained angiogenesis

C. Self-sufficiency in growth signals

D. All of the above

All of the above

16
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These cells are capable of destroying tumor cells without previous sensitization and may provide the first line of defense against tumor cells.

A. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes

B. Natural killer cells

C. Macrophages

D. Humoral mechanisms

Natural killer cells

17
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This group of diseases is characterized by defects in collagen synthesis or structure; they are all single-gene disorders with the mode of inheritance encompassing both autosomal dominant and recessive patterns.

A. Marfan syndrome

B. Cystic fibrosis

C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

D. Neurofibromatosis

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

18
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Congenital heart defects, simian crease, mental retardation and abundant neck skin are all characteristics of this Trisomy.

A. Trisomy 13

B. Trisomy 18

C. Trisomy 21

D. Trisomy 10

Trisomy 21

19
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A term referring to the accumulation of edema fluid in the fetus during intrauterine growth.

A. SIDS

B. Necrotizing enterocolitis

C. Respiratory distress syndrome

D. Fetal hydrops

Fetal hydrops

20
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The most common renal neoplasm of childhood is ____.

A. Renal cell carcinoma

B. Wilms tumor

C. Transitional cell carcinoma

D. Neuroblastoma

Wilms tumor

21
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A nutritional disease that occurs when protein deprivation is relatively greater than the reduction in total calories. This disease is also characterized by generalized or dependent edema

A. Marasmus

B. Kwashiorkor

C. Anorexia

D. Rickets

Kwashiorkor

22
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A deficiency in ___________ results in night blindess, squamous metaplasia and vulnerability to infection.

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin D

C. Viamin E

D. Vitamin K

Vitamin A

23
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________ toxicity leads to brain damage, particularly in children. Additional effects include footdrop, wristdrop, colic and kidney damage.

A. Aresenic

B. Mercury

C. Lead

D. Cadmium

Lead

24
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Single cell eukaryotes that are major causes of disease and death in developing countries that can replicate intracellulary within a variety of cells are known as:

A. Viruses

B. Protozoa

C. Prions

D. Fungi

Protozoa

25
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This congenital anomaly involves thin-walled arterial outpouchings in cerebral vessels which can spontaneously rupture, classically at branch points around the circle of Willis.

A. Arteriovenous fistulas

B. Berry aneurysms

C. Tonsillar herniation

D. Takayasu arteritis

Berry aneurysms

26
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Atherosclerotic plaques are raised lesions composed of soft grumous lipid cores. They are susceptible to:

A. Rupture, ulceration and erosion

B. Atheroembolism

C. Aneurysm formation

D. All of the above

All of the above

27
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Which of the following is not considered a major risk factor leading to atherosclerosis.

A. Hypertension

B. High fiber diet

C. Diabetes

D. Smoking

High fiber diet

28
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This vasculitis involves large and small arteries and is the most common type of vascular inflammation among the elderly in developed countries.

A. Immune complex-assoicated vasculitis

B. Takayasu arteritis

C. Giant cell (temporal) arteritis

D. Polyarteritis nodosa

Giant cell (temporal) arteritis

29
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Thromboangiitis Obliterans, also known as __________, is a distinctive disorder that frequently results in severe vascular insufficiency and gangrene of the extremities and especially involves the tibial and radial arteries.

A. Churg-Strauss syndrome

B. Berger's disease

C. Buerger disease

D. Wegener granulomatosis

Buerger disease

30
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This borderline vascular neoplasm is most common in patients with AIDS. These patients exhibit characteristic coalescent cutaneous red-purple macules and plaques.

A. Kaposi Sarcoma

B. Glomus tumor

C. Angiosarcoma

D. Hemangiopericytomas

Kaposi Sarcoma

31
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Which of the following is not considered a cardinal feature of the Tetralogy of Fallot?

31. Which of the following is not considered a cardinal feature of the Tetralogy of Fallot?

A. VSD

B. Right ventricular hypertrophy

C. Overriding of the VSD by the aorta

D. Left ventricular hypertrophy

Left ventricular hypertrophy

- Right ventricular hypertrophy

- VSD

- Overriding of the VSD by the aorta

32
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A myocardial infarction that occurred ____ ago will grossly appear maximally yellow-tan and soft, with depressed and red-tan margins.

A. 2 hours

B. 2 days

C. 8 days

D. 8 weeks

8 days

33
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_________ endocarditis is characterized by the presence of sterile vegetations on the valves of patients with systemic lupus erythematosus.

A. Rheumatic heart disease

B. Infective

C. Nonbacterial thrombotic

D. Libman-Sacks

Libman-Sacks

34
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Unlike the other cardiomyopathies, this form leads primarily to systolic dysfunction.

A. Dilated

B. Hypertrophic

C. Restrictive

D. Left ventricular non-compaction

Dilated

35
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The most common familial hemolytic anemia in the world is _______.

A. Hereditary spherocytosis

B. Sickle cell anemia

C. Thalassemia

D. Warm antibody immunohemolytic anemia

Sickle cell anemia

36
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A characteristic neurobehavioral complication of iron deficiency anemia, ______ is the compunction to consume nonfood-stuffs such as dirt and clay.

A. Pallor

B. Listlessness

C. Pica

D. Fatigue

Pica

37
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Infectious mononucleosis is an acute, self-limited disease of adolescents and young adults caused by __________ virus.

A. Epstein-Barr

B. Human immunodeficiency

C. Cytomegalovirus

D. Polio

Epstein-Barr

38
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Hodgkin lymphoma encompasses a distinctive group of neoplasms characterized by the presence of a tumor giant cell known as the __________.

A. Sickle cell

B. Orphan Annie cell

C. Reed-Sternberg cell

D. Langerhan cell

Reed-Sternberg cell

39
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This chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has major pathologic changes within the acini rather than the bronchus of the lung.

A. Chronic bronchitis

B. Bronchiectasis

C. Asthma

D. Emphysema

Emphysema

40
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________ asthma is stimulated by fumes, organic and chemical dusts, gasses and other chemicals.

A. Atopic

B. Non-atopic

C. Drug-induced

D. Occupational

Occupational

41
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Bronchial obstruction, cystic fibrosis and necrotizing pneumonia are all conditions that commonly predispose to:

A. Emphysema

B. Bronchiectasis

C. Adult respiratory syndrome

D. Sarcoidosis

Bronchiectasis

42
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P. jiroveci (formerly known as P. carinii) is an oportunistic infectious agent which can cause infection in which population?

A. AIDS patients

B. Severely malnourished infants

C. Immunosuppressed persons after organ transplantion

D. All of the above

All of the above

43
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The most common subtype of lung carcinoma is:

A. Adenocarcinoma

B. Squamous cell carcinoma

C. Large cell carcinoma

D. Small cell carcinoma

Adenocarcinoma

44
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_________ is a glomerular syndrome characterized by hematuria, oliguria, azotemia and hypertension.

A. Nephrotic syndrome

B. Azotemia

C. Nephritic syndrome

D. Chronic pyelonephritis

Nephritic syndrome

45
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A kidney with the gross appearance of discrete, yellowish, raised abcesses and the microscopic appearance of liquefactive necrosis with abscess formation is characteristic of:

A. Nephrotic syndrome

B. Acute pyelonephritis

C. Nephritic syndrome

D. Chronic pyelonephritis

Acute pyelonephritis

46
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This carcinoma is the least common of all renal cell carcinomas and are unique in having multiple losses of entire chromosomes.

A. Clear cell carcinoma

B. Papillary renal cell carcinoma

C. Chromophobe renal carcinoma

D. Transitional Cell Carcinoma

Chromophobe renal carcinoma

47
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Painless, slow growing mobile discrete masses that represent about 60% of tumors in the parotid gland are:

A. Pleomorphic adenoma

B. Warthin tumor

C. Oncocytoma

D. Cystadenoma

Pleomorphic adenoma

48
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Which feature is not true about Mallory-Weiss tears?

A. Usually cross the GE junction

B. Associated with severe retching

C. Patients often present with hematemesis

D. Usually transmural through esophagus wall

Usually transmural through esophagus wall

49
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An inflammatory bowel disease which always involves the rectum and does not exhibit mural thickening or strictures.

A. Sigmoid diverticulitis

B. Crohn disease

C. Ulcerative colitis

D. Colitis-associated neoplasia

Ulcerative colitis

50
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This condition most frequently necessitates liver transplantation in the United States.

A. Hepatitis A

B. Hepatitis B

C. Hepatitis C

D. Hepatocellular carcinoma

Hepatitis C

51
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This viral infection of the liver may cause mild a hepatitis during the acute phase of infectious mononucleosis.

A. Epstein-Barr virus

B. Cytomegalovirus

C. Herpes simplex

D. Yellow fever

Epstein-Barr virus

52
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What major etiologic associations have been established with Hepatocellular Carcinoma?

A. Infection with HCV

B. Aflatoxin exposure

C. Alcoholic cirrhosis

D. All of the above

All of the above

53
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Most pancreatic cancers (60%) arise in the:

A. Head

B. Neck

C. Tail

D. Uncinate process

Head

54
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What is the strongest environmental influence that doubles the risk of pancreatic cancer?

A. Asbestos

B. Smoking

C. Drinking Alcohol

D. Pollution

Smoking

55
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The morphology of a seminoma is:

A. Tissues from all three germ cell layers

B. Sheets of uniform polygonal cells with cleared cytoplasm; lymphocytes in the stroma

C. Poorly differentiated endothelium-like, cuboidal , or columnar cells

D. Cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast without villus formation

Sheets of uniform polygonal cells with cleared cytoplasm; lymphocytes in the stroma

56
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What is the most common form of cancer in men?

A. Colorectal

B. Testicular

C. Prostate

D. Lung

Prostate

57
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_________ is characterized by intermittent, often severe suprapubic pain, urinary frequency, urgency, hematuria and dysuria without evidence of bacterial infection or hemorrhage in the bladder mucosa.

A. Malakoplakia

B. Polypoid cystitis

C. Interstitial cystitis

D. Papilloma

Interstitial cystitis

58
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An uncommon, solid, usually unilateral ovarian tumor consisting of abundant stroma containing nests of transitional type epithelium resembling that of the urinary tract.

A. Endometrioid tumor

B. Teratoma

C. Mucinous tumor

D. Brenner tumor

Brenner tumor

59
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A biphasic tumor composed of neoplastic stromal cells and epithelium-lined glands with the stroma exhibiting epithelium-lined leaflike projections is known as a ______.

A. Phyllodes tumor

B. Fibroadenoma

C. Sclerosing adenosis

D. Intraductal Carcinoma

Phyllodes tumor

60
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The ______subtype of DCIS is distinctive and is characterized by cells with high-grade nuclei with extensive central necrosis.

A. Papillary

B. Cribiform

C. Micropapillary

D. Comedo

Comedo

61
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The most common cause of hypothyroidism in areas of the world where iodine levels are sufficient is:

A. Graves disease

B. Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis

C. Hashimoto thyroiditis

D. Cretinism

Hashimoto thyroiditis

62
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A key feature observed in papillary thyroid cancer is neoplastic papillae with dense fibrovascular core. Concentrically calcified structures termed ____ often are present within the papillae.

A. Reed-sternberg cells

B. Psammoma bodies

C. Lewy body

D. Homer-Wright rosettes

Psammoma bodies

63
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Which of the following is true about pheochromocytoma?

A. 10% are unilateral

B. 10% are benign

C. 10% are extraadrenal

D. All of the above

10% are extraadrenal

64
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This group of rare genetic disorders is characterized by defective osteoclast-mediated bone resorption.

A. Osteopetrosis

B. Osteogenesis imperfecta

C. Achondroplasia

D. Osteoporosis

Osteopetrosis

65
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Rickets and osteomalacia are manifestations of vitamin ___ deficiency or its abnormal metabolism. Rickets refers to a disorder in children and osteomalacia is the adult counterpart.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

D

66
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Benign peripheral nerve sheath tumors which are not encapsulated. There are three subtypes including localized cutaneous, plexform and diffuse.

A. Schwannoma

B. Neurofibroma

C. Duchenne

D. Myasthenia gravis

Neurofibroma

67
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This type of herniation is life threatening and refers to the displacement of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum.

A. Tonsillar

B. Transtentorial

C. Subfalcine

D. Inguinal

Tonsillar

68
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A rapidly progressive dementing illness resulting from a prion.

A. Multiple sclerosis

B. Rabies

C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

D. Meningitis

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

69
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A typical gross finding at autopsy of a patient with _______ is pallor of the substansia nigra and locus ceruleus. A microsocopic feature includes Lewy bodies in the neurons.

A. Beriberi

B. Multiple sclerosis

C. Poliovirus

D. Parkinson disease

Parkinson disease

70
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A skin lesion grossly appearing as an elevated dome- or flat topped lesion 5 mm or less in diameter.

A. Excoriation

B. Macule

C. Papule

D. Pustule

Papule

71
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A lesion of this persistent skin condition is typically a well-demarcated, pink to salmoncolored plaque covered by loosely adherent silver-white scale.

A. Lichen Planus

B. Psoriasis

C. Lichen simplex chronicus

D. Verrucae

Psoriasis

72
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This skin lesion presents as a pearly papule, often with prominent, dilated subepidermal blood vessels. It is a slow-growing cancer that rarely metastasizes.

A. Basal cell carcinoma

B. Melanoma

C. Squamous cell carcinoma

D. Actinic keratosis

Basal cell carcinoma