Exam 3 Pathology Jones Review, Version I

What is rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?

Chronic autoimmune inflammatory disease targeting synovial joints; causes pannus formation, cartilage destruction, and deformity.

What immune mechanism causes rheumatoid arthritis?

Autoantibodies (rheumatoid factor) attack the body's own IgG, forming immune complexes that inflame the synovial membrane.

Which joints are most affected in rheumatoid arthritis?

Small joints of the hands and feet.

What are common clinical features of rheumatoid arthritis?

Pain, swelling, morning stiffness, joint instability, and dislocation in severe cases.

How is rheumatoid arthritis treated?

Anti-inflammatories, corticosteroids, methotrexate, biologics, and physical therapy.

What is osteoarthritis (OA)?

A degenerative "wear-and-tear" joint disease involving loss of articular cartilage and bone spur (osteophyte) formation.

What causes osteoarthritis?

Chronic mechanical stress and aging causing progressive cartilage breakdown in weight-bearing joints.

What are the main symptoms of osteoarthritis?

Joint pain that worsens with use, stiffness relieved by rest, no systemic inflammation.

How is osteoarthritis managed?

NSAIDs, weight control, physical therapy, and joint replacement if severe.

What is gout?

A metabolic disorder of purine metabolism leading to uric acid crystal deposition in joints and kidneys.

Which joint is most commonly affected by gout?

The first metatarsophalangeal joint (great toe).

What are complications of gout?

Tophi formation in joints and urate nephropathy causing renal damage.

What is the treatment for gout?

Low-purine diet, hydration, and uric acid-lowering drugs such as allopurinol.

What are the main types of bone fractures?

Simple (two fragments), comminuted (many fragments), compound (breaks skin), and pathologic (through diseased bone).

What are the stages of fracture healing?

Hematoma formation → fibrocartilaginous callus → bony callus → bone remodeling.

What are common fracture treatments?

Closed reduction with cast or open reduction with internal fixation.

What is myositis?

Inflammation of skeletal muscle due to injury, overexertion, or autoimmune disease.

What are the main types of myositis?

Localized myositis, polymyositis (systemic inflammation), and dermatomyositis (with rash).

What is intervertebral disc disease?

Progressive degeneration of the nucleus pulposus and annulus fibrosus, leading to disc herniation.

What are symptoms of a herniated disc?

Sudden back pain radiating down the leg, numbness, or weakness (sciatica).

How is a herniated disc diagnosed?

CT scan or myelogram.

What is the treatment for a herniated disc?

Rest, physical therapy, anti-inflammatories, or surgical discectomy.

What are the main male reproductive hormones?

Testosterone, luteinizing hormone (LH), and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

What is the function of testosterone?

Produced by Leydig cells; supports spermatogenesis, libido, and secondary sexual characteristics.

What is the function of LH in males?

Stimulates Leydig cells to secrete testosterone.

What is the function of FSH in males?

Stimulates Sertoli cells to support sperm maturation.

What are common infections of the male reproductive tract?

Gonorrhea and Chlamydia causing urethritis, which can spread to the epididymis or prostate.

What is prostatitis?

Inflammation of the prostate gland—acute (from infection) or chronic (mild, persistent).

How is prostatitis treated?

Antibiotic therapy and supportive care.

What is benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

Non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate, common in elderly men, causing urinary obstruction.

Which part of the prostate does BPH affect?

The inner periurethral group of glands.

What causes urinary obstruction in BPH?

Enlargement compresses the urethra and bladder neck, leading to incomplete emptying.

What are complications of BPH?

Cystitis, hydronephrosis, pyelonephritis, and urinary stones.

How is BPH treated?

Alpha-blockers, 5α-reductase inhibitors, or transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP).

What is carcinoma of the prostate?

Malignant tumor originating in the outer glandular zone of the prostate, often metastasizing to bone.

How is prostate cancer detected?

Digital rectal exam, PSA and acid phosphatase levels, biopsy, and ultrasound.

How is prostate cancer treated?

Radical prostatectomy, radiation, or hormonal therapy (orchiectomy or estrogen drugs).

What is the difference between prostatitis and prostate cancer?

Prostatitis is inflammatory/infectious, usually acute; prostate cancer is a slow-growing neoplasm, often asymptomatic early.

What is the role of estrogen in the menstrual cycle?

Stimulates endometrial proliferation and development of female secondary sex traits.

What is the role of progesterone in the menstrual cycle?

Secreted by the corpus luteum; converts proliferative endometrium into secretory tissue for possible implantation.

What do FSH and LH do in the female cycle?

FSH promotes follicle maturation; LH triggers ovulation and corpus luteum formation.

What is endometriosis?

Presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterus that responds cyclically to hormones, causing bleeding, pain, and scarring.

What are common sites of endometriosis?

Ovaries, fallopian tubes, pelvic peritoneum, rectum.

What are symptoms of endometriosis?

Dysmenorrhea, pelvic pain, dyspareunia, infertility.

How is endometriosis diagnosed?

Laparoscopy to visualize and biopsy ectopic lesions.

What are treatments for endometriosis?

Hormonal suppression (oral contraceptives, progesterone, GnRH analogs) or surgical ablation/removal.

What is dysmenorrhea?

Painful menstruation caused by uterine contractions from prostaglandin release.

What is primary dysmenorrhea?

Occurs without pelvic pathology, typically after menarche; due to prostaglandin-induced contractions.

What is secondary dysmenorrhea?

Painful menses due to underlying pelvic disease such as endometriosis or fibroids.

How is dysmenorrhea treated?

NSAIDs or hormonal contraceptives to reduce prostaglandin activity.

What are the main types of ovarian cysts?

Functional (follicular, corpus luteum), endometrial (chocolate cysts), dermoid (teratomas), and cysts of PCOS.

What are functional ovarian cysts?

Follicles or corpora lutea that fail to regress and become fluid-filled; usually resolve spontaneously.

What is an endometrial (chocolate) cyst?

Endometriosis within the ovary filled with old blood and debris.

What is PCOS?

Polycystic ovary syndrome—multiple cysts, irregular menses, hyperandrogenism, and infertility.

What is a dermoid cyst (teratoma)?

A benign ovarian tumor from an unfertilized ovum containing hair, teeth, and bone.

Where does fertilization occur?

In the fallopian tube, usually the ampulla.

What happens after fertilization?

Zygote forms → develops into blastocyst → implants into endometrium by the end of the first week.

What are the main functions of the placenta?

Exchange of gases and nutrients, waste removal, and hormone production (HCG, estrogen, progesterone, HPL).

What are the two circulations in the placenta?

Fetoplacental (fetal to villi) and uteroplacental (maternal blood around villi).

What is placenta previa?

Placenta implanted low in uterus, covering cervix and causing bleeding; requires cesarean delivery.

What is velamentous cord insertion?

Umbilical cord attaches to fetal membranes instead of placenta; vessels can tear during labor.

What is preeclampsia?

Hypertension and proteinuria during pregnancy from inadequate placental perfusion.

What is eclampsia?

Severe form of preeclampsia with seizures and risk of maternal/fetal death.

What is an ectopic pregnancy?

Implantation of embryo outside the uterus, usually in a fallopian tube; can rupture and cause hemorrhage.

What is gestational diabetes?

Hormone-induced insulin resistance leading to maternal hyperglycemia.

What is hyperemesis gravidarum?

Excessive, persistent vomiting during pregnancy causing dehydration and weight loss.

What are common twin complications?

Prematurity, malformations, and twin transfusion syndrome.

What is hemolytic disease of the newborn?

Destruction of fetal red blood cells by maternal antibodies (Rh or ABO incompatibility).

How is Rh hemolytic disease prevented?

Administering Rh immune globulin to the Rh-negative mother within 72 hours of delivery.

What are the main functions of the breast?

Milk production and secretion via mammary glands under prolactin (production) and oxytocin (letdown) control.

How do hormones affect the breast?

Estrogen promotes ductal growth; progesterone promotes lobular/alveolar development; both decline after menopause causing atrophy.

What is breast carcinoma?

Malignant tumor of ductal or lobular epithelium of the breast.

Which genes increase breast cancer risk?

BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations.

What are favorable prognostic factors for breast cancer?

ER/PR-positive receptor status and early detection.

How is breast cancer detected?

Mammography detects lesions before they're palpable; dense tissue appears white.

How does breast cancer spread?

Via lymphatics to axillary nodes, then to lungs, bone, and liver.

What are the main treatments for breast cancer?

Surgical resection (lumpectomy/mastectomy) plus adjuvant chemo, hormonal therapy, and targeted HER2 inhibitors.