Biology G210 – Lecture 7: Antimicrobial Drugs

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85 question-and-answer flashcards covering key terms, mechanisms, drug examples, advantages, disadvantages, resistance, and antiviral agents from Lecture 7 on Antimicrobial Drugs.

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85 Terms

1
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What is an antibiotic?

An antimicrobial substance produced naturally by microorganisms.

2
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Which fungal genus beginning with “P” is a major source of antibiotics?

Penicillium.

3
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Which fungal genus beginning with “C” produces many antibiotics?

Cephalosporium.

4
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Which actinomycete genus yields streptomycin and many other antibiotics?

Streptomyces.

5
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Name an actinomycete genus other than Streptomyces that produces antibiotics.

Micromonospora.

6
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Which Gram-positive rod genus is known for producing bacitracin?

Bacillus.

7
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What does the term “narrow-spectrum antibiotic” mean?

It affects only a specific, limited group of microorganisms.

8
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What does “broad-spectrum antibiotic” mean?

It acts against multiple groups, typically both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.

9
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Isoniazid is primarily effective against which bacterial group?

Mycobacteria.

10
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Which antibiotic is effective against Gram-positive, Gram-negative, Chlamydias, and Rickettsias?

Tetracycline.

11
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List the five major modes of antibiotic action.

(1) Inhibit cell-wall synthesis, (2) inhibit protein synthesis, (3) injure plasma membrane, (4) inhibit nucleic-acid synthesis, (5) inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites.

12
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Give four examples of antibiotics that inhibit cell-wall synthesis.

Penicillins, cephalosporins, bacitracin, vancomycin.

13
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Which antibiotic binds the 50S ribosomal subunit and blocks peptide-bond formation?

Chloramphenicol.

14
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Which antibiotic changes the 30S ribosomal shape so mRNA is read incorrectly?

Streptomycin (an aminoglycoside).

15
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Which antibiotic family interferes with tRNA attachment to the ribosome-mRNA complex?

Tetracyclines.

16
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Which antibiotic injures the plasma membrane of Gram-negative bacteria?

Polymyxin B.

17
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Quinolones and fluoroquinolones inhibit what enzyme needed for DNA replication?

DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II).

18
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Rifampin inhibits the synthesis of which nucleic acid molecule?

Messenger RNA (mRNA).

19
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Sulfonamides are structural analogs of which folic-acid precursor?

Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA).

20
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Give one example of a natural penicillin.

Penicillin G (or Penicillin V).

21
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What key structural ring allows penicillin to block cell-wall cross-linking?

The β-lactam ring.

22
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What is a major advantage of natural penicillins?

Very low toxicity to the host.

23
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Give one disadvantage of natural penicillins.

They are narrow spectrum and susceptible to penicillinases (also can cause allergies).

24
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Which natural penicillin must be injected because stomach acid destroys it?

Penicillin G.

25
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Which natural penicillin can be taken orally?

Penicillin V.

26
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How do semi-synthetic penicillins differ structurally from natural ones?

Extra side-chains are added to the β-lactam core.

27
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Name one advantage of semi-synthetic penicillins.

They may be broader spectrum, more stable, and/or penicillinase resistant.

28
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Which semi-synthetic penicillin is penicillinase resistant?

Oxacillin.

29
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Which broad-spectrum semi-synthetic penicillin is often combined with penicillinase inhibitors?

Amoxicillin.

30
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Which antibiotic class contains a β-lactam ring but differs slightly from penicillins?

Cephalosporins.

31
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What is one advantage of cephalosporins?

They are generally broad spectrum.

32
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Name a first-generation cephalosporin that requires injection.

Cephalothin.

33
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Which cephalosporin mentioned in the lecture can be taken orally?

Cefixime.

34
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Bacitracin is mainly used against bacteria with which Gram reaction?

Gram-positive bacteria.

35
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Why is bacitracin restricted to topical use?

Systemic toxicity makes internal use unsafe.

36
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Which antibiotic is considered the last line of defense against MRSA?

Vancomycin.

37
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Isoniazid inhibits the synthesis of what cell-wall component?

Mycolic acid.

38
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Ethambutol blocks the integration of what molecule into the Mycobacterial wall?

Mycolic acid.

39
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What human adverse effect limits chloramphenicol’s systemic use?

Suppression of bone-marrow activity (risk of aplastic anemia).

40
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Aminoglycosides can damage which human organs?

They can harm the auditory nerve (hearing) and the kidneys.

41
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Name a topical aminoglycoside found in Neosporin.

Neomycin.

42
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Besides broad spectrum activity, streptomycin is particularly effective against which pathogen group?

Mycobacteria.

43
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Which aminoglycoside is often used against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

Gentamicin.

44
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Tetracyclines are especially useful against which two intracellular bacteria?

Chlamydias and Rickettsias.

45
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What cosmetic side effect can tetracycline cause in children?

Permanent discoloration of teeth.

46
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Which tetracycline derivative stays in the body longer?

Doxycycline.

47
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Macrolide antibiotics are characterized by what structural feature?

A large macrocyclic lactone ring.

48
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Which macrolide is an oral alternative to penicillin for Gram-positive infections?

Erythromycin.

49
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Which macrolide has broader spectrum and treats Chlamydia infections?

Azithromycin.

50
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Polymyxin B is usually administered in what form?

Topically (e.g., ointments).

51
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What unusual body-fluid discoloration can rifampin cause?

Orange-red urine, sweat, tears, and feces.

52
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Fluoroquinolones are valued for what pharmacokinetic property?

Excellent penetration into tissues.

53
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Give one fluoroquinolone used in human medicine.

Ciprofloxacin.

54
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What is the mechanism of action of sulfonamides?

They competitively inhibit folic-acid synthesis enzymes.

55
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Which paired drug combination is a common sulfonamide therapy?

Sulfamethoxazole–Trimethoprim.

56
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List the four main bacterial resistance mechanisms.

(1) Prevent drug entry, (2) enzymatic destruction/inactivation, (3) alteration of target site, (4) efflux pumping.

57
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Resistance genes are often located on what mobile elements?

Plasmids or transposons.

58
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Why should patients complete the full prescribed antibiotic course?

Stopping early allows resistant survivors to multiply and spread.

59
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What is the goal of combination drug therapy regarding resistance?

To reduce the chance that bacteria evolve resistance to all agents.

60
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Name the three major categories of antiviral drugs discussed.

Nucleoside/nucleotide analogs, enzyme inhibitors, and interferons.

61
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How does acyclovir halt viral DNA replication?

It is converted to a false nucleotide that stops DNA polymerase.

62
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Acyclovir is primarily used against which family of viruses?

Herpesviruses.

63
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Which viral enzyme activates acyclovir inside infected cells?

Virus-encoded thymidine kinase.

64
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Amantadine blocks which step in the influenza life cycle?

Uncoating of the virus after entry.

65
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Indinavir inhibits which HIV enzyme?

The viral protease.

66
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Oseltamivir inhibits which influenza surface enzyme?

Neuraminidase.

67
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Interferon-α is used clinically to treat infections by which virus type?

Hepatitis viruses.

68
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Gentamicin is combined with other drugs to treat infections by which opportunistic pathogen?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

69
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Which capsule component helps Pseudomonas aeruginosa evade phagocytosis?

Alginate capsule.

70
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Mycobacterium leprae causes which chronic disease?

Leprosy (Hansen’s disease).

71
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What property makes rifampin especially useful against tuberculosis and leprosy lesions?

It penetrates tissues and cells very well.

72
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Varicella-zoster virus remains latent in which part of the nervous system?

Dorsal root ganglia.

73
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Which antiviral drug is commonly given to manage shingles outbreaks?

Acyclovir.

74
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Which two surface proteins of influenza A are crucial for entry and exit?

Hemagglutinin (HA) and neuraminidase (NA).

75
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Oseltamivir specifically targets which influenza protein?

Neuraminidase.

76
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What is the general antiviral role of interferons?

They are cytokines that prevent the spread of viruses to new cells.

77
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Which antibiotic in Neosporin ointment increases membrane permeability of Gram-negative bacteria?

Polymyxin B.

78
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Vancomycin belongs to which antibiotic class?

Polypeptide antibiotics.

79
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β-lactam antibiotics mimic what dipeptide in transpeptidase active sites?

D-Ala–D-Ala.

80
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Blocking transpeptidase prevents cross-linking of which cell-wall polymer?

Peptidoglycan.

81
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Name the three antibiotics typically found in over-the-counter Neosporin.

Bacitracin, neomycin, and polymyxin B.

82
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What life-threatening blood disorder can chloramphenicol cause?

Aplastic anemia.

83
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Which antibiotic group works by changing the shape of the 30S ribosomal subunit?

Aminoglycosides.

84
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How do efflux pumps confer antibiotic resistance?

They actively expel the antibiotic from the bacterial cell.

85
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What improper medical practice, aside from incomplete dosing, accelerates resistance development?

Indiscriminate or inappropriate use of antibiotics.