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What should be done if blood flow stops mid-draw? A. Re-anchor and advance or pull back slightly B. Pull the needle out immediately C. Start over on the same arm D. Shake the tube vigorously
A
True or False: MRSA is one of the most common bacteria found in healthcare settings.
True
Which blood type is considered the universal donor
O negative
True or False: The Modified Allen test is used to confirm collateral circulation before an arterial puncture.
True
What does PPE stand for? A. Professional Practice Ethics B. Patient Protection Equipment C. Personal Protective Equipment D. Personal Protocol Essentials
C
What is the purpose of a laboratory test directory? - To list tests and their requirements - To store unused chemicals - To replace quality control testing - To record patient demographics and results
To list tests and their requirements
According to the Patient Bill of Rights, can a patient decline medical treatment? (Yes or No)
Yes
True or False: HIPAA regulations apply only to electronic records.
False
True or False: Capillary action is the movement of liquid through a narrow space with the help of gravity.
False
Which of the following is an example of nonverbal communication? A. Facial expressions and body language B. Speaking clearly and slowly C. Giving written instructions D. Asking open-ended questions
A
Which of the following items should always be included on a specimen label? - Patient's full name, date of birth, date and time of collection, collector's initials - Patient's full name, date of birth, attending physician - Collector's initials, name of test, time of collection - Patient's full name, specimen source (e.g., throat or buccal), collector's initials
Patient's full name, date of birth, date and time of collection, collector's initials
True or False: The tourniquet should be applied 6-8 inches above the draw site.
False
What is the purpose of placing certain specimens on ice immediately after collection? - To reduce the risk of bacterial contamination - To slow cellular and biochemical reactions that could alter results - To make the blood easier to separate during centrifugation - To keep the specimen from clotting too quickly
To slow cellular and biochemical reactions that could alter results
What two identifiers do medical professionals use to properly identify patients?
Full name and date of birth
True or False: The PASS acronym stands for Pull, Aim, Slide, Sweep.
False
Forcefully squeezing or "milking" the finger during a capillary puncture may cause: - Hemostasis - Hemolysis - Osteomyelitis - Phenylketonuria
Hemolysis
What is the mission of HIPAA?
protect patients' health information
True or False: Barcoding helps reduce specimen misidentification errors.
Barcoding helps reduce specimen misidentification errors.
Which of the following is NOT a core value of professionalism? A. Integrity B. Dependability C. Judgment D. Empathy
C
Which of the following is NOT a non-blood specimen that a phlebotomist may handle? - Urine - Stool - Nail clippings - Spinal fluid
Nail clippings
What is the definition of battery, and how does it apply in the healthcare setting?
touching without consent
Which emergency condition is characterized by pale and clammy skin, rapid breathing, and a weak pulse? - Stroke - Shock - Seizure - Heart attack
Shock
Which of the following is a key step when collecting capillary blood? - Using alcohol with io -Using the largest lancet available -Drawing blood from a swollen site -Discarding the first drop
Discarding the first drop
blood that is low in oxygen is called .
Deoxygenated blood
When does an infection begin? - When the body produces too many red blood cells - When a harmful microorganism enters the body and multiplies - When the immune system overproduces antibodies - When the body becomes dehydrated
When a harmful microorganism enters the body and multiplies
Which method uses a vacuum-sealed tube to collect blood? - Syringe draw - Dermal puncture - Capillary tube collection - Evacuated tube system
Evacuated tube system
Platelet-rich plasma is commonly used in medical and cosmetic treatments to promote what? - Muscle growth - Bone density - Healing and tissue repair - Blood clotting
Healing and tissue repair
What is the ideal angle of the top slide when making a blood smear? 15-20 25-30 30-45 45
30-45
Which of the following best describes informed consent? A. A patient agrees to a procedure after receiving a full explanation B. A patient nods their head in approval C. A provider proceeds without patient approval D. A family member grants permission for the patient
A
True or False: An EMR can be accessed across multiple healthcare facilities.
False
True or False: A phlebotomist should avoid drawing blood from a site with a new tattoo due to a higher risk of infection.
True
Which urine test is commonly performed during a physical exam? - Culture and Sensitivity - 24-Hour Urine Collection - Urinalysis - Creatinine Clearance Test
Urinalysis
What is the primary purpose of an Exposure Control Plan? A. To prevent workplace theft B. To outline how to reduce exposure to bloodborne pathogens C. To label chemical containers D. To manage vacation schedules
B
What is the function of EDTA in blood collection tubes? - Promote clotting - Prevent clotting by binding calcium - Separate serum - Preserve glucose
Prevent clotting by binding calcium
True or False: Failing to label a patient's blood sample can be considered an act of negligence.
True
Which lifestyle recommendation is included in the American Heart Association's "Life's Essential 8?" - Eat better - Be more active - Quit tobacco - All of the above
All of the above
Which white blood cell condition involves an abnormally low count? A. Leukocytosis B. Leukopenia C. Anemia D. Thrombocytopenia
B
Which of the following is NOT a link in the chain of infection? - Portal of Entry - Immune Response - Mode of Transmission - Reservoir
Immune Response
True or False: A laboratory test directory may be available in digital or written form, depending on the facility.
True
What is the name of the triangular area inside the elbow that is ideal for venipuncture?
Antecubital fossa
Which test requires the patient to cough deeply to bring up secretions from the lower respiratory tract? - Throat swab - Nasopharyngeal swab - Sputum sample - Saliva sample
Sputum sample
A patient becomes pale and dizzy during a blood draw. What should the phlebotomist do first? - Complete the draw quickly - Remove the needle and lay the patient back - Call for a supervisor - Draw an extra tube for testing
Remove the needle and lay the patient back
A proper blood smear should have what feature? - A thick feathered edge with clumped cells - A smooth feathered edge without streaks - Even coverage of the entire slide - Only methylene blue stain
A smooth feathered edge without streaks
What additional identifier do medical professionals use to identify patients in the hospital?
The patient's ID band
Which type of code is used to describe procedures for billing purposes? - CPT - LIS - ICD-10 - EMR
CPT
True or False: The order of draw is the same for microcollection tubes and vacutainer tubes.
False
True or False: Povidone-iodine is an appropriate site cleanser when collecting an ETOH specimen.
True
Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the body? A. Left ventricle B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Right atrium
A
Which best describes the practice of Universal Precautions? - Using protective equipment only with patients known to be infectious - Treating all blood, body fluids, and tissues as potentially infectious - Avoiding cross-contamination from food and environmental sources - Limiting testing to reduce hospital-acquired infections
Treating all blood, body fluids, and tissues as potentially infectious
Which tube is typically drawn last to avoid additive interference? - Light blue - Green - Gray - Red
Gray
What is another name for a red blood cell?
Erythrocyte
What does the NFPA hazard diamond communicate? - Chemical hazards - Bloodborne pathogen risk - Radiation exposure - Infection control codes
Chemical hazards
What is the most common site for capillary collection in infants under 12 months old? A. Finger B. Heel C. Earlobe D. Big toe
B
What does viability mean? - The ability of cells, tissues, or microorganisms to remain alive and functional -The ability of a specimen to clot properly for testing - The amount of blood collected in the tube - The stability of the specimen during transport
The ability of cells, tissues, or microorganisms to remain alive and functional
Which of the following is the correct method for cleansing the venipuncture site? A. Using an up-and-down motion B. Wiping back and forth across the site C. Setting the swab on the site for at least 30 seconds D. Dabbing the site lightly
B
True or False: A vein viewer is a point-of-care testing device.
False
What is the correct order of steps before beginning a blood draw? A. Explain procedure → identify patient → gain consent B. Gain consent → identify patient → explain procedure C. Identify patient → explain procedure → gain consent D. Explain procedure → gain consent → identify patient
C
What is a waybill used for in laboratory practice? - Patient identification - Insurance reimbursement - Specimen shipment documentation - Chain of custody
Specimen shipment documentation
Which situation requires a capillary draw rather than venipuncture? - Blood culture - Large-volume draw - CBC on an infant - Coagulation testing
CBC on an infant
Which test is used to monitor exposure to heavy metals? - ABG - Ammonia - OGTT - Trace elements
Trace elements
What should a phlebotomist do if they are exposed to blood? A. Call the patient B. Rinse and continue working C. Report immediately and follow the Exposure Control Plan D. Wipe with alcohol and continue working
C
Which of the following tests requires freezing? - ACTH - Calcitonin - Factor IX - All of the above
All of the above
What serious reaction can occur if blood is transfused into a patient who is not a compatible match?
Agglutination
What is the proper position for a patient who faints during a blood draw? - Sitting upright - Standing - Recovery position - On the stomach
Recovery position
What equipment modification can help with veins that collapse under pressure? A. Use a syringe instead of a vacuum tube B. Use a tourniquet higher up on the arm C. Increase the vacuum pressure D. Use a larger collection tube
A
What are the four main groups of pathogens? - Viruses, Bacteria, Prions, Algae - Bacteria, Fungi, Protozoa, Toxins - Viruses, Bacteria, Fungi, Parasites - Viruses, Bacteria, Yeasts, Worms
Viruses, Bacteria, Fungi, Parasites
What is the liquid portion of anticoagulated blood? A. Serum B. Plasma C. Lymph D. Buffy coat
B
Which condition is commonly treated using therapeutic phlebotomy? - Anemia - Leukemia - Diabetes - Hemochromatosis
Hemochromatosis
Why must tubes be inverted after collection? - To mix the blood with any additives in the tube - To check for clotting - To remove bubbles - To prevent contamination
To mix the blood with any additives in the tube
Which tube and additive are used to prepare a blood smear? - Blue-top, sodium citrate - Lavender-top, EDTA - Green-top, heparin - Red-top, no additive
Lavender-top, EDTA
Blood that is high in oxygen is called
oxygenated blood
Which type of code identifies diagnoses and reasons for testing? - CPT - ABN - LIS - ICD-10
ICD-10
The purpose of the order of draw is to prevent cross-contamination of additives.
True
What is the correct timeframe for analyzing an ABG sample? - Within 5 minutes - Within 30 minutes - Within 1 hour - Within 4 hours
Within 5 minutes
What is the purpose of a tourniquet in venipuncture? A. To sterilize the skin B. To reduce bleeding C. To dilate the artery D. To make veins more prominent
D
Which test most likely requires a pre-warmed collection tube? - Lipid panel - Cryoglobulin test - Basic metabolic panel - Hemoglobin A1C test
Cryoglobulin test
What is the preferred vein for venipuncture?
median cubital vein
What system is primarily used to manage lab test orders and results? - EHR - LIS - ICD-10 - CPT
LIS
Which of the following can make venipuncture more difficult? A. Proper hydration, poor circulation, obesity B. Obesity, dehydration, poor circulation C. Needle phobia, proper hydration, low BMI D. All of the above
B
Which type of transmission-based precaution is required for a patient with tuberculosis? - Contact precautions - Droplet precautions - Airborne precautions - Standard precautions
Airborne precautions
Which component of blood is responsible for carrying oxygen? A. Leukocytes B. Plasma C. Hemoglobin D. Platelets
C
What is the purpose of the chain of custody? - To ensure specimens are refrigerated - To maintain strict tracking of forensic specimens - To allow specimens to be tested at multiple laboratories - To prioritize rapid testing over documentation
- To maintain strict tracking of forensic specimens
When should a discard tube be used? - Always before drawing blood - Only when using a syringe - When using a butterfly needle - After a failed draw attempt
When using a butterfly needle
True or False: Cleaning and inspecting centrifuge rotors is only necessary during troubleshooting.
False
True or False: Certain states may require a license to practice phlebotomy in that state.
True
True or False: An AED can analyze heart rhythm and deliver a shock if needed.
True
In pediatric patients, what is the best strategy for minimizing anxiety? A. Talk only to the parent B. Use distraction techniques and age-appropriate language C. Sedate the child D. Tell them it won't hurt
Use distraction techniques and age-appropriate language
Which test requires arterial blood rather than venous blood? - CBC - Lipid Panel - ABG - OGTT
ABG
What agency enforces workplace safety standards? A. HIPAA B. CDC C. CLSI D. OSHA
D
What does a peak level represent in therapeutic drug monitoring? - The fastest time it takes for a medication to act in the body - The highest concentration of a medication in the bloodstream - The lowest concentration of a medication in the bloodstream - The average concentration of a medication over a 24-hour period
The highest concentration of a medication in the bloodstream
Which of the following is considered a HIPAA violation? A. Calling a patient's name in the waiting room B. Writing patient information in the medical chart C. Discussing patient results in a crowded elevator D. Giving the patient a printed copy of their results
C
What is the purpose of an Advanced Beneficiary Notice? - To confirm informed consent - To inform Medicare patients of potential costs - To assign billing codes - To request specimen recollection
To inform Medicare patients of potential costs
Which test is most commonly performed using a lavender-top tube? - CBC - Glucose - PT/INR - BMP
CBC
Which acronym is used for fire response procedures? - RACE - PASS - CPR - AED
RACE
Which of the following can help make a vein more prominent before venipuncture? - Applying a cold compress - Keeping the arm elevated - Using a larger gauge needle - Asking the patient to dangle the arm below heart level
Asking the patient to dangle the arm below heart level
What is the first link in the chain of infection? - Portal of Entry - Mode of Transmission - Infectious Agent - Susceptible Host
Infectious Agent
True or False: The basilic vein is the most securely anchored and is the safest vein to use.
False
What is the laboratory most likely to do if a specimen has an error? - Correct the error and proceed with testing - Store the sample indefinitely - Reject the sample and require recollection - Test the specimen and flag the results
Reject the sample and require recollection
When a vein is hard to palpate, what is the best next step? - Draw from an artery - Perform a blind stick - Use a warming device or have the patient hydrate - Switch to a fingerstick
Use a warming device or have the patient hydrate
Which step should be taken before starting a centrifuge to prevent damage and accidents? - Balancing tubes of equal volume across from each other - Wiping down the rotor with alcohol - Using only plastic tubes - Unplugging and reconnecting the centrifuge
Balancing tubes of equal volume across from each other