Green book exam 2

Static bone imaging is routinely performed how long after tracer administration to an adult:

A)30min

B)1hr

C)2-3hr

D) 24hr

C)2-3hr

which of the following structures normally does not appear as areas of increased activity on the bone images of adults

A) phalanges

B) glenoid fossa

C) sternoclavicular joints

D) vertebrae column

E) anterior iliac crests

A) phalanges

which of the following conditions is visualized on a bone image as a photopenic area

A) fracture of the vertebrae column

B) tracer infiltration

C) acute myocardial infarction

D) osteomyelitis

E) attenuation

E) attenuation

it is safe to block a portion of the pulmonary circulation with MAA particles in a pt with suspected pulmonary emboli bc the

A) number of injected particles is too small to cause harm

B) particles are made from albumin isolated from human serum

C) particles are rapidly phagocytized by lung macrophages

D) number of injected particles blocks only a small number of precapillary arterioles

E) albumin is denatured before it is made into particles

D) number of injected particles blocks only a small number of precapillary arterioles

a nebulizer is used to administer which of the following lung ventilation RPHX

A) Kr81 gas

B) Xe-133 gas

C) Tc99m pentetate

D) Tc99m Macroaggregated albumin

E) Tc99m pertechnetate

C) Tc99m pentetate (DTPA)

which of the following RPHX may be used to image acute deep vein thrombosis in the lower extremities

A) Tc99m sulfur colloid

B) Tc99m macroaggregated albumin

C) I-131 iobenguane

D) In-111 oxyquinoline

E) Tc99m arcitumomab

B) Tc99m macroaggregated albumin

In performing radionuclide venography with 99mTc-MAA, the radiopharmaceutical is administered at what site:

A) dorsal veins on top of each foot

B) either femoral vein

C) metacarpal vein

D) either basilic vein

E) antecubital area of either arm

A) dorsal veins on top of each foot

After total thyroidectomy, total-body imaging with radioiodine normally will demonstrate tracer concentration in which areas:

A)liver, lungs, bones

B)salivary glands, stomach, and bladder

C)liver, salivary glands, stomach, lungs

D)bladder, liver, brain

B)salivary glands, stomach, and bladder

a parathyroid adenoma will concentrate which of the following RPHX

A) I-123 sodium iodide

B) Tc99m pertechnetate

C) Tc99m sestamibi

D) Tc99m pertechnetate or Tc99m sestamibi

C) Tc99m sestamibi

when positioning a pt for an LAO view of gated equilibrium ventricular function study, tilting the camera detector toward the patients feet separated which two structures

A) left ventricle and aorta

B) right ventricular and aorta

C) left ventricle and left atrium

D) left and right ventricles

E) left and right atria

C) left ventricle and left atrium

Which tracer is excreted primarily via the hepatobiliary system:

A) Tc99m pyrophosphate

B) Tc99m exametazime

C) Tc99m medronate

D) Tc99m sestamibi

E) Ti-201 thallous chloride

D) Tc99m sestamibi

a cardiac stress test requires the placement of how many electrodes on the pts body

A) 3

B) 6

C) 10

D) 12

C) 10

visualization of bone marrow uptake on a Tc99m sulfur colloid liver/spleen image is most likely the result of which of the following

A) improper colloid particle size

B) insufficient tracer circulation time

C) overactive pituitary gland

D) overactive bone marrow

E) liver dysfunction

E) liver dysfunction

During hepatobiliary imaging, which structure will NOT be visualized if cystic duct obstruction is present:

A) gallbladder

B) common bile duct

C) stomach

D) small intestine

E) common hepatic duct

A) gallbladder

how long after the admin of Tc99m pertechnetaet does imaging begin for the localization of a Meckel's diverticulum

A) 10 min

B) 15-20min

C) 1 hr

D) immediately

E) delayed imaging 2-3 hours

D) immediately

all of the following Tc99m labeled RPHX may be appropriate for performing a left to right cardiac shunt examination using the first pass method except

A) pertechnetate

B) thallous chloride

C) sestamibi

D) tetrofosmin

E) pentetate

B) thallous chloride

The glomerular filtration rate GFR is measured with which of the following RPHX

A) Tc99m sulfur colloid

B) Tc99m pentetate

C) Tc99m gluceptate

D) Tc99m mertiatide

E) Tc99m succimer

B) Tc99m pentetate

Radionuclide cystography is performed by the direct method using which radiopharmaceutical:

A)99mTc-pentetate or medronate

B)99mTc-pertechnetate or sulfur colloid

C) Tc99m pertechnetate or Tc99m mertiatide

D)99mTc-gluconate or sulfur colloid

B)99mTc-pertechnetate or sulfur colloid

filtered SC is required for which of the following exams

A) gastroesophageal reflux

B) gastric emptying

C) lymphoscintigraphy

D) brain imaging

E) LeVeen shunt patency

C) lymphoscintigraphy

a pt with a nasogastric tube in place is transferred to the nuclear medicine department for an imaging procedure. The tech should

A) confirm physician orders for transfer and reestablish suction if required

B) remove the nasogastric tube bc it will interfere with the imaging procedure

C) use the nasogastric tube to administer the RPHX

D) cancel the study bc the presence of a nasogastric tube precludes any imaging procedure being performed

E) clean the nasogastric tube for use during the study

A) confirm physician orders for transfer and reestablish suction if required

The appearance of what structure indicates the beginning of the venous phase of a cerebral blood flow study:

A)anterior cerebral arteries

B)carotid arteries

C)nasopharynx

D)superior sagittal sinus

D)superior sagittal sinus

In performing cisternograpy, the purpose of acquiring the first image over the lower thoracic/lumbar spine is to ascertain:

A)the site of tracer administration

B)the flow rate of the cerebral spinal fluid

C) a pressure reading of the CSF

D) that the spinal cord was not damaged during tracer admin

E)that the tracer was not infiltrated

E)that the tracer was not infiltrated

On Wednesday a patient had a 123I thyroid study performed; a 125I plasma volume is ordered to be performed on Thursday. which of the following statements about the situation is correct

A) the I-123 will not interfere with the plasma volume

B) the blood volume determination should be postponed until the I-123 is decayed

C) a baseline plasma sample should be collected before performing the plasma volume

D) I-131 instead of I-125 human serum albumin should be used for the plasma volume determination

E) I-123 instead of I-125 human serum albumin should be used for the plasma volume determination

C) a baseline plasma sample should be collected before performing the plasma volume

Sr89 chloride is used to treat which condition?

A) bone cancer

B) bone pain

C) rheumatoid arthritis

D) malignant effusions

E) polycythemia vera

B) bone pain

whole body imaging with I-131 sodium iodide is optimally performed how long after tracer administration

A) 12 hours

B) 48-72 hours

C) 96 hours

D) 128 hours

E) greater than 128 hours

B) 48-72 hours

a pt undergoing an imaging procedure indicates to the tech that a seizure is impending. the most appropriate action for the tech is

A) instruct the pt to breathe deeply to help increase oxygen levels in the brain

B) ignore the pts concerns because the timing of seizures cannot be predicted

C) stop the imaging procedure and have the pt lie on the floor with a pillow supporting the heat

D) increase the number of physical restraints on the pts to prevent pt movement and injury

E) instruct the pt to hold their breath for as long as they can

C) stop the imaging procedure and have the pt lie on the floor with a pillow supporting the head

after admin of In-111 pentetreotide, which areas of the body should be imaged

A) ant and post whole body

B) ant and post abdomen

C) ant and post pelvis

D) ant, post, and lats of head and neck

E) ant and post chest

A) ant and post whole body

which of the following is the initial positioning for visualizing gastrointestinal bleeding with labeled RBCs

A) xiphoid in middle of field of view

B) symphysis pubis in the middle of field of view

C) lower border of liver and spleen at top of field of view

D) lower esophagus at top of FOV

E) bladder in the top FOV

C) lower border of liver and spleen at top of field of view

which of the following tracer is preferred if a first pass stress and rest cardiac function exam are to be performed on a pt

A) Tc99m pertechnetate

B) Tc99m medronate

C) Tc99m MAA

D) Tc99m sestamibi

E) Tc99m pentetate

E) Tc99m pentetate

pt prep for breast imaging with Tc99m sestamibi includes which of the following

A) no caffeine 4 hours before study

B) fasting 8 hr before tracer administration

C) discontinuation of any meds

D) explanation of the procedure

E) consumption of a fatty meal

D) explanation of the procedure

historically, a shilling test may be ordered for a pt with suspected

A) hemolytic anemia

B) multiple myeloma

C) pernicious anemia

D) lymphocytic anemia

E) iron deficiency anemia

C) pernicious anemia

data derived from a first-pass cardiac exam and a region of interest drawn over the lung are used to generate the pulmonary time activity curve shown here. the arrow indicates

A) first pass of activity through the lungs

B) second pass of activity through the lungs

C) third pass of activity through the lungs

D) activity returning prematurely to the lungs

E) activity returning from the systemic circulation

D) activity returning prematurely to the lungs

The proper route of administration for a lymphoscintigrapy exam is:

A)an intravenous injection

B)orally

C)an intrathecal injection

D)a subcutaneous injection

D)a subcutaneous injection

a pt plasmacrit may be determined by

A) multiplying the pts hematocrit by .9

B) adding the decimal hematocrit to 1

C) finding the ratio of plasma volume to RBC volume

D) dividing 1 by the decimal hematocrit

E) subtracting the decimal hematocrit from 1

E) subtracting the decimal hematocrit from 1

During a red cell sequestration study, counts are obtained from all of the following organs except:

A)kidneys

B)spleen

C)atria of heart

D) liver

E) ventricles of heart

A)kidneys

In performing a plasma volume with 125I-albumn, 3 blood samples are collected at varying times after tracer administration and counted. These counts vs time are plotted on semilog graph paper. The purpose of this graph is to?

A) give a visual representation of the data

B) obtain the half-time clearance value used in the calculations

C) correct for leakage of the rphx

D) show the decay of the radionuclide

E) indicate the correct bioroute

C) correct for leakage of the rphx

pt prep for a thyroid uptake test may include discontinuation of anti thyroid medications. Which of the following is one of these anti thyroid drugs'

A) Synthroid

B) potassium perchlorate

C) propylthiouracil

D) thyroxine

E) lugols solution

C) propylthiouracil

During a radiochromium red cell mass determination, an infusion set may be used to place a needle in the patient's antecubital vein. To maintain the patency of the infusion set tubing, what substance should be injected into the infusion set tubing?

A) a chelating agent

B) normal saline

C acd solution

D) heparin

E) bacteriostatic water

D) heparin

a gastric emptying study uses which of the following RPHX

A) Tc99m medronate

B) Tc99m disida

C) Tc99m pyrophopahte

D) Tc99m macroaggregated albumin

E) Tc99m sulfur colloid

E) Tc99m sulfur colloid

In the case of insulinoma, which of the following radiopharmaceuticals may cause hypoglycemia:

A)In-111 WBCS

B) Tc99m sestamibi

C) Ga67 citrate

D) In-111 pentetreotide

E) F18 FDG

D) In-111 pentetreotide

which of the following structures is normally visualized on an image performed with F-18 FDG

A) thyroid

B) brain

C) pituitary gland

D) pancreas

E) bone

B) brain

the C14 urea breath test is used to

A) detect the presence of peptic ulcers

B) detect delayed gastric emptying

C) detect the presence of helicobacter pylori bacteria

D) rule out Zollinger Ellison syndrome

E) identify gastric cancer

C) detect the presence of helicobacter pylori bacteria

on the basis of these data

capsule at 0900 with 216789 counts/min

bkg at 0900 with 92 counts/min

thyroid at 1500 with 94954 counts /min

thigh at 1500 with 521 counts /min

what is the pt thyroid uptake at 1500 if a I-123 sodium iodide capsule administered to the pt was used as the standard

A) 32%

B) 44%

C) 51%

D) 60%

E) 87%

D) 60%

If the elution efficiency of a 99Mo/99mTc generator is 96% and 11.7 MBq 99mTc is present on the column, approximately how much activity will be removed during elution?

A) .46MBq

B) 11.2 MBq

C) 11.7 MBq

D) 12.2MBq

E) 14.5MBq

B) 11.2 MBq

A dry-column generator is eluted with 5mL of saline, and the eluate containing 863mCi is collected into a 10mL evacuated vial. What is the concentration of the eluate?

A) 172.6mCi/mL

B) 85.3mCi/mL

C) 575mCi/mL

D) 5.79mCi/mL

E) 3.58mCi/mL

A) 172.6mCi/mL

If no eluate is obtained during generator elution, the technologist should next:

A)disassemble the generator to determine the cause

B)attempt elution with another evacuated elution vial

C)check the generator tubing for kinks or leaks

D)add more saline to generator

E)contact the generator manufacturer

B)attempt elution with another evacuated elution vial

according to the NRC, records of Mo99 concentration in Tc99m eluate must be maintained for how long

A) 1 year

B) 2 years

C) 3 years

D) 5 years

E) 10 years

C) 3 years

According to the NRC, the concentration of what radionuclidic impurity must be determined after the first elution of a 99Mo/99mTc generator:

A)Al

B)99Mo

C)free pertechnetate

D)a and c

B)99Mo

Based on this days clinical schedule

Patient A: Renal Function Study

Patient B: Total Body bone image

Patient C: Meckel's Diverticulum

Patient D: Hepatobiliary study

The technologist should prepare or order all of the following radiopharmaceuticals except

A. 99mTc-Macroaggregated Albumin

B. 99mTc-Mebrofenin

C. 99mTc-Medronate

D. 99mTc-Mertiatide

E. 99mTc-Pertechnetate

A. 99mTc-Macroaggregated Albumin

according to the NRC regulations, records of written directives must be maintained for how long

A) 1 year

B) 3 years

C) 5 years

D) 10 years

E) indefinitely

B) 3 years

which of the following RPHX should be prepared if a renal function study is being performed ot determine the GFR

A) Tc99m gluceptaet

B) Tc99m mertiatide

C) Tc99m pentetate

D) Tc99m succimer

E) Tc99m sulfur colloid

C) Tc99m pentetate

53. Heating is required during the preparation of all of the following 99mTc-labeled radiopharmaceuticals except:

A) filtered sulfur colloid

B)bicisate

C)sestamibi

D)sulfur colloid

E)mertiatide

B)bicisate

54. To calculate the yield of a 99Mo/99mTc generator, in what sequence should the following steps be performed?

1. measure the amount of 99mTc activity eluted from the generator

2. determine the amount of 99Mo activity present on the generator at a given time t

3. calculate the fraction of 99mTc activity eluted compared with the 99mTc activity present on the generator column

4. determine how much 99mTc activity has formed by 99Mo decay ay a given time t

5. determine the elapsed time from calibration to time t

a. I, II, III, IV, V

b. V, II, IV, I , III

c. IV, II, V, III, I

d. I, V ,II ,IV, III

b. V, II, IV, I , III

55. when performing radiochromatography on an RPHX sample, the location of the radiochemical components on the chromatography strip is shown here. What is the Rf value of hydrolyzed reduced Tc99 if the solvent front is 12.6cm from the origin

hydrolyzed reduced Tc99m distance from the origin is 2.5cm

A) .003

B) .012

C) .20

D) 2

E) 4.8

D) 2

56. all of the following units are expressions of RPHX specific activity except

A) uCI/mg

B) KBq/mL

C) Ci/g

D) MBq/mol

E) mCi /ug

B) KBq/mL

57. A technologist needs 1 mCi 111In-chloride at 0900 on May 18. The label on the radiopharmaceutical vial contains the following information:

Total activity: 3.0 mCi

Total volume: 3.0 mL

Assay: 1200, May21

What volume is required to obtain the necessary activity on May18?

A) .48ml

b) .69ml

c) 1.41 mL

d) 1.78 mL

E) 2.1 mL

A) .48ml

58. If 25 uCi of a radiopharmaceutical are to be administered for each kilogram of body weight, approximately how much activity should be administered to a child weighing 15.5 kg?

A) 65mCI

B) 28mCI

C) 11mCI

D) 1.6mCI

E) .39mCI

E) .39mCI

59. For labeling RBC, the prescribed adult dosage of 99mTc-pertechnetate is 925 MBq +/- 10%. Which of the following dose calibrator readings obtained from syringe containing the patient dosage would verify that the prescribed activity was dispensed?

a. 21 mCi

b. 28 mCi

c. 20 mCi

d. 29

E) 25.5

E) 25.5

60. when red blood cells are labeled with Tc99m using the in vivo method, in what order are the reagents injected into the patient

A) stannous pyrophosphate and Tc99m pertechnetate are administered at the same time

B) stannous pyrophosphate is administered 15-30 min before pertechnetate

C) stannous pyrophosphate is admin 2-3 hrs before Tc99m

D) Tc99m pertechnetate is administered 15-30 min before stannous pyrophosphate

E) Tc99m pertechnetate is admin 2-3 hrs before stannous pyrophosphate

B) stannous pyrophosphate is administered 15-30 min before pertechnetate

61. If the following reagents are available, what volume of each reagent must be added together to prepare 20 mCi of 99mTc-succimer?

Succimer Kit: 2.2 mL succorer reagent: use 1 part by volume to 2 parts of 99mTc-pertechnetate

99mTc-pertechnetate

Concentration: 20 mCi/mL

Total volume: 10 mL

A) (succimer) 2.0 mL and (99mTc) 4.5 mL

B) (succimer) 1.0 mL and (99mTc) 2.5 mL

C) (succimer )0.75 mL and (99mTc) 0.5 mL

D) .5ml and 1ml

D) .5ml and 1ml

62. Venipuncture materials labeled with which of the following expiration dates may be used safely on August 10, 2017?

1. July 31, 2017

2. August 31, 2017

3. September 30, 2017

4. October 1, 2018

a. 4 only

b. 3 or 4 only

c. 2, 3 or 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 or 4

d. 1, 2, 3 or 4

63. according to NRC regulations, all of the following information must appear in the record of Mo99 concentration measurements except

A) dose calibrator make and model

B) date of measurement

C) name of the individual making the measurement

D) ratio of Mo99 to Tc99m activity's

E) time of measurement

A) dose calibrator make and model

64. According to the NRC, a written directive must be prepared for the administration of which of the following radiopharmaceutical?

A) 1mCi of In111 oxine

B) 5mCi of Ti 201 chloride

C) 10mCi of Ga67 citrate

D) 5mCi of I-131 sodium iodide

E) 30mCi of Tc99m sestamibi

D) 5mCi of I-131 sodium iodide

65. if Tc99m eluate has to be diluted to prepare other Tc99m labeled products, the correct diluent is which of the following

A) sterile saline containing .2% thiosulfate

B) preservative free isotonic saline

C) bacteriostatic saline

D) distilled water

E) sterile water

B) preservative free isotonic saline

66. A unit dose of 67Ga-citrate calibrated for 0800 on July 9 contains 5 mCi in 2.6 mL. If 3 mCi are needed on July 10 at 0800, what volume should be retained in the syringe?

A) 2.7ml

B) 1.9ml

C) 1.5ml

D) 1.3ml

E) 1.1ml

B) 1.9ml

67. If a 2.5 Ci 99Mo/99mTc generator is estimated to contain 268 mCi of 99mTc-pertechnetate, but 198 mCi are eluted, what is the approximate elution efficiency of the generator?

A) 94%

B) 85%

C) 74%

D) 58%

E) 11%

C) 74%

68. what is the volume contained in the syringe shown here

A) 1.4ml

B) 2. ml

C) 3.8 ml

D) 4. ml

E) 4.6ml

B) 2. ml

69. which of the following federal agencies regulates the packaging and transportation of RPHX

A) united states pharmacopeia

B) environmental protection agency

C) department of transportation

D) nuclear regulatory commission

E) food and drug administration

C) department of transportation

70. which of the following exposure rates should be labeled a category II DOT label

package a 75mR/hr at S and 1m= 6.5mR/hr

package b 65mR/hr at S and 1m= 5.5

package c 52 mR/hr at S and 1m 2.2

package d 35 mr/hr at S and 1 m= 1

package e .6mR/hr at S and 1m= NDR

package d 35 mr/hr at S and 1 m= 1

71. if the radiation intensity of a point source at 0.5 m measures 36 mR/hr, at what distance will the intensity be halved?

A) 7.1m

B) 5.3m

C) 2.2m

D) 1.1m

E) .7m

E) .7m

72. If the HVL of 60Co in lead is 1.25 cm, what percentage of 60Co photons is absorbed from a 60Co source shielded with 2.5 cm of lead?

A) 75%

B) 50%

C) 35%

D) 27.5 %

E) 25%

A) 75%

73. According to the NRC, a written directive is required for the administration of all of the following radiopharmaceutical except:

A) 35mCi of I-131 sodium iodide

B) 15mCi of P32 sodium chromate

C) 15 mCi P32 sodium phosphate

D) 10mCI of Sr89 chloride

E) 20mCI of F-18 FDG

E) 20mCI of F-18 FDG

74. According to NRC regulations, the annual occupational dose limit to any organ or tissue other than the eye is:

a. 50 mSv

b. 5 mSv

c. 15 rem

d. 35 rem

E. 50 rem

E. 50 rem

75. According to NRC regulations, which of the following cannot be disposed of in the sewage system?

A) unused I-123 sodium iodide capsules

B) feces from a pt who received I-131 therapy

C) spit from an aerosol Tc99m pentetate

D) urine from a renal test

E) disposable diaper of a child who has received Ga67

A) unused I-123 sodium iodide capsules

76. In performing a room survey with end windows G-M counter, the technologist should first:

A) perform a batter check on the counter

B) calibrate the unit

C) measure each area designated on the survey diagram

D) perform a wipe test on each designated area

E) measure the room bkg

A) perform a batter check on the counter

77. what is the maximum exposure rate that can be measured with the GM meter shown below

A) 50,000mR/hr

B) 5000mR/hr

C) 500mR/hr

D) 50mR/hr

E) 5mR/hr

D) 50mR/hr

78. A technologist monitors the empty carton from a shipment of 131I-sodium iodide. The container measures 0.08 mR/hr, and room background measured 0.07 mR/hr. The technologist should next:

A) notify the RSO

B) dispose of the container as radioactive waste

C) wipe test the container for removable contamination

D) obliterate any radiation symbols and dispose of the container in regular trash

E) notify the NRC

D) obliterate any radiation symbols and dispose of the container in regular trash

79. According to NRC regulations, in what areas can radio xenon be administered?

a. in any room that can be closed off with doors

b. only in rooms that have xenon alarm system

c. only in imaging rooms that can be negatively pressurized

d. in any room where G-M detector is available to use

c. only in imaging rooms that can be negatively pressurized

80. When can a decay factor be used to calibrate a unit dose in place of measuring the dosage in a dose calibrator?

a. a dose calibrator must be used to measure every dosage

b. only if the same size and type of syringe is used

c. only if a unit dosage was not manipulated after preparation and calibration

d. only if the dosage contains less than 1mCi activity

e. only if the dosage contains Tc99m

c. only if a unit dosage was not manipulated after preparation and calibration

81. A patient received 5 mCi of I131-sodium iodide for treatment of hyperthyroidism. The patient should adhere to all of the following instructions except:

a. minimize close contact to others

b. remain at home at least 30 days

c. use separate personal utensils for first week after therapy

d. drink plenty of liquids

e. wash hands after using the toilet

b. remain at home at least 30 days

82. after a Tc99m spill, decontamination procedures have not been able remove all of the spilled material. If the current exposure rate is 32mR/hr how long will it take for the exposure rate to drop to 2 mR/hr

A) 24hr

B) 18hr

C) 12hr

D) 8hr

E) 4 hr

A) 24hr

83. If a patient must be hospitalized in isolation after receiving a high activity of I131, which of the following signs must be placed on the door of the isolation room?

a. "Authorized Personnel Only"

b. caution, airborne radioactivity

c. reverse isolation procedures required

d. length of time a visitor may stay in the room

e. sign-in sheet to record name and age of each visitor

d. length of time a visitor may stay in the room

84. How soon after a medical event has occurred must the NRC be notified?

A) written report within 24hrs

B) telephone notification within 72 hrs

C) telephone notification no later than the following calendar day

D) written report within 30 calendar days

E) written report within 5 regular workdays

C) telephone notification no later than the following calendar day

85. According to the NRC, written instructions must be provided to a patient who has received radionuclide therapy when:

a. the patient is a female of childbearing age

b. the patient resides with children younger than 18 years of age

c. the pt is under the age of 18 years old

d. every pt must receive instructions, regardless of dosage

e. another individual may receive an exposure greater than .1 rem (1mSv) from the pt

e. another individual may receive an exposure greater than .1 rem (1mSv) from the pt

86. which of the following statements about the shielding method of performing a dose calibrator linearity test is true

A) the linearity check must be done over a 24 hour period

B) only af ew microcuries of radioactivity are needed to perform the test

C) linearity must be tested more frequently if this method is used

D) a different source activity is required for each shield combination

E) when the shields are first used, the decay method must be used to confirm their accuracy

E) when the shields are first used, the decay method must be used to confirm their accuracy

87. The following dose calibrator constancy test results were obtained with a 57Co reference source:

57Co (measured)56.5 uCi, (calculated)57.8 uCi

99mTc (measured)59.2 uCi, (calculated)58.7 uCi

123I (measured)46.9 uCi, (calculated)51.7 uCi

201Tl (measured)47.9 uCi, (calculated)53.5 uCi

Which of the following measured values fall within the limits according to the standard of practice?

a. 57Co, 99mTc, 123I

b. 57Co, 201Tl

c. 99mTc, 123I, 201Tl

d. Co57 and Tc99m

e. 57Co, 99mTc, 123I, 201Tl

a. 57Co, 99mTc, 123I

88. based on the graph shown here , the full width at half maximum is

A) 2500cpm

B) 680keV

C) 7500cpm

D) 50keV

E) 500cpm

D) 50keV

89. To perform a constancy test on a dose calibrator that is being used in a general nuclear medicine imaging department, the best choice of radionuclide settings on which to count the reference standard would include which of the following?

a. 123I, 125I, 131I

b. 125I, 57Co, 137Cs

c. 99mTc, 201Tl, 137cs

d. 57Co, 137Cs, 131I

e. Tc99m , Tl201, I-123

e. Tc99m , Tl201, I-123

90. the scintillation camera quality control image shown here was obtained with which of the following transmission phantoms

A) 4 quadrant bar

B) orthogonal hole

C) moire phantom

D) parallel line equal space

E) hine duley

B) orthogonal hole

91. the following data were obtained during a dose calibrator accuracy test

CO 57 cal value 80.6uci measured value 71uci

Cs137 cal value 62.3uCi measured value 55.9uCi

92. which of the following is a high pass filter

A) ramp

B) hanning

C) parzen

D) newcomer

E) butter worth

A) ramp

93. In the quantitating scintillation camera detector uniformity, the central FOV is defined as the diameter of the useful FOV times:

a. .95

b. 75

c. 33

d. 25

e. 15

b. 75

94. When the heart rate is 95 beats/min, what is the length of an average R-R interval?

a. .63 sec

b. 1 sec

c. 1.6 sec

d. 1.9 sec

e. 2.5 sec

a. .63 sec

95. To perform pixel calibration, two capillary sources are placed on the camera surface 15 cm apart. From an image acquired using a 128 x 128 matrix, an activity profile is generated on the computer. If the profile shows that there are 45 pixels between two activity peaks, the pixel size is:

a. 0.02 cm

b. 0.12

c. .20

d. .33 cm

e .42cm

d. .33 cm

96. Coincidence loss is likely to occur when using a well counter if the:

a. energy of the radionuclide is below 50 keV

b. energy of the radionuclide is above 300 keV

c. activity of the source is below 1 uCi

d. activity of the source is above 2 mCi

d. activity of the source is above 2 mCi

97. To assure a maximum error of 2% at the 95% confidence level, all samples that are measured in a well counter should be counted for a time interval that produces at least:

a. 7500counts

b. 5000counts

c. 1000cpm

d. 500cpm

e. 10,000cpm

e. 10,000cpm

98. If a 137Cs source used to determine constancy of a dose calibrator was originally calibrated to contain 200 uCi on June 1, 1998, what would be the expected activity of the source on June 1, 2002 (1-year decay factor of 0.977; 2-year decay factor of 0.955)?

a. 182.4

b. 185 uCi

c. 186.6 uCi

d. 191 uCi

e. 195.4uci

a. 182.4

99. a Co57 co source used to determine dose calibrator constancy was originally calibrated to contain 325.8uCi 35 days ago. If the source is measured today, the dose calibrator reading must fall within what range of activates to meet the accepted standard

A) 238.2-357

b) 258-337.6

c) 268.3-342.7

d) 280.3-342.7uci

e) 271.5-331.9uci

c) 268.3-342.7

100. It has been determined that a correction factor 1.15 must be used when a 5 mL syringe containing about 25 mCi is measured in a particular dose calibrator. If a unit dosage activity read 26.2 mCi, what is the true activity?

a. 22.7 mCi

b. 25.1 mCi

c. 30.1 mCi

d. 40.1 mCi

c. 30.1 mCi