Uro- Urologic Cancers

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1
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What are RFs for bladder cancer?

Cigarette smoking, industrial dye/solvent exposures, schistosomiasis (developing countries)

2
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What is the MC type of bladder cancer?

Transitional (urothelial) cell carcinoma

3
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Which type of BC is associated with Schistosomiasis?

squamous cell carcinoma

4
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What is the MC symptom of bladder cancer?

Painless gross hematuria

5
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What abnormal results may be seen on BMP/LFTs in a patient with bladder cancer?

Azotemia

6
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What is needed to make the diagnosis/check for recurrence of bladder cancer?

urine cytology

7
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Which test is better at assessing locations of tumors in BC?

CT urogram

8
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If a CT urogram cannot be obtained what is the next best step?

CT abd/pelvis w/ contrast or IV pyelogram

*if CT CI → MRI

9
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What is the gold standard for diagnosing BC?

Cystoscopy -can perform biopsy at the same time

10
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What is a NMP22 BladderChek test?

point-of-care assay that can detect elevated levels of abnormal urinary protein seen with bladder cancer; used to screen high risk pts

11
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What urinary protein is seen in small amounts in healthy individuals, but often elevated in bladder cancer?

NMP22

12
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What types of BC are non-muscle invasive?

CIS, Ta, T1

13
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What types of BC are muscle invasive?

T2 and greater

14
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Are the majority of BC non-muscle invasive or muscle invasive?

NMIBC

15
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What staging system does bladder CA use?

TNM

16
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What stage of bladder cancer:

High-grade dysplasia, confined to epithelium

Carcinoma in situ (CIS)

17
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What stage of bladder cancer:

Papillary tumor confined to the epithelium

Ta

18
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What stage of bladder cancer:

Tumor invasion into the lamina propria

T1

19
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What stage of bladder cancer:

Tumor invasion into the muscularis propria

T2

20
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What stage of bladder cancer:

Tumor involvement of the perivesical fat

T3

21
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What stage of bladder cancer:

Tumor involvement of adjacent organs such as the prostate, rectum, or pelvic side wall

T4

22
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What is the tx for non-invasive bladder cancer?

TURBT ± intravesical BCG or gemcitabine

23
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What is the tx for invasive bladder cancer?

radical cystectomy

24
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When is a radical cystectomy indicated to tx bladder cancer?

tumor is too bulky to undergo TURBT, prostatic urethra involvement, CIS or T1 high-grade tumor refractory to conservative management

25
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What is the tx for stage II-III BC?

combined Cisplatin + Radical cystectomy or TURBT + chemo

26
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What is the tx for Stage IV w/ metastasis?

chemo

27
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What is intravesical therapy?

immunotherapy or chemo agents delivered directly into bladder via catheter; performed 6-12 wks post TURBT

28
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What stages of invasive bladder cancer warrant radical cystoprostatectomy for men and anterior exenteration for women?

Stage T2-T4

29
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When is a partial cystectomy indicated?

pts w/ solitary lesions

30
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What is removed in a radical cystectomy?

M: bladder, prostate, seminal vesicles, surrounding fat, peritoneal attachments, bilateral pelvic lymph nodes

W: bladder, uterus, cervix, ovaries, ant. vagina

31
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What type of urinary diversion procedure:

Segment of the ileum directs urine through a stoma into an external collecting bag

Ileal conduit urinary diversion

32
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What type of urinary diversion procedure:

A pouch made out of portions of colon stores urine until it is drained via a catheter inserted through a stoma

Indiana pouch reservoir

33
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What type of urinary diversion procedure:

Intestine is made into a reservoir and connected to the urethra

Neobladder to urethra diversion

34
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What is the first line chemo tx for bladder cancer?

MVAC -MTX, Vinblastine, Dosorubicin, Cisplatin

GC: Gemcitabine, Cisplatin

35
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What is the MC neoplasm in men 20-35 y/o?

Testicular cancer

36
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What is the MC type of testicular cancer?

Germ cell tumors (seminoma > nonseminoma)

37
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What is the MC testicular tumor in males > 50 yo?

lymphoma

*MC secondary neoplasm of the testis

38
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How does testicular cancer present?

painless unilateral lump or swelling with sensation of "heaviness" or dull pain

39
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What is the preferred imaging modality for testicular cancer?

scrotal US

*can differentiate intratesicular vs extratesticular masses

40
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Why are MRI abd/pelvis/scrotum and PET scans not recommended to evaluate testicular cancer?

risk of false negative; add little benefit

41
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How is AFP affected in pure seminomas?

Normal

42
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How is AFP affected in non-seminomas?

Elevated

43
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What lab value may be elevated in both non-seminomas and pure seminomas?

LDH

*maybe B-Hcg (more common in non-seminomas tho)

44
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What do higher levels of LDH represent?

higher tumor burden, growth rate, and cellular proliferation

45
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What is the tx for testicular cancer?

Radical inguinal orchiectomy

46
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When is radiotherapy and chemo recommended for testicular cancer?

Stage 2+ post-orchiectomy

47
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What is the MC primary site of secondary tumor of the testis?

Prostate

48
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What is the MC type of penile cancer?

squamous cell carcinoma

49
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What are RFs for penile cancer?

poor hygiene, phimosis, HPV, smoking, penile trauma

50
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How does penile cancer present?

small, flat, ulcerative lesion on the glans penis that won't heal; may have inguinal LAD

51
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What is Bowen disease?

rare penile cancer: lesions are red, velvety plaques

52
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What is required to diagnose penile cancer?

tissue biopsy

53
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What staging system does penile CA use?

TNM

54
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What stage of penile cancer:

Tumor confined to glans or prepuce

Stage 1

55
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What stage of penile cancer:

Involves penile shaft

Stage 2

56
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What stage of penile cancer:

Operable inguinal node mets

Stage 3

57
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What stage of penile cancer:

Tumor extends beyond shaft, with inoperable inguinal or distal mets

Stage 4

58
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When diagnosing penile cancer, what conditions must be ruled out with a biopsy?

Syphilis, chancroid, condylomata

59
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What is the gold standard tx for penile cancer?

surgical removal of the primary tumor

60
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What is the tx for penile cancer if it involves the shaft?

complete penectomy

61
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When is chemo necessary for penile cancer?

mets beyond pelvic/inguinal lymph nodes and unresectable tumor

62
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What is the tx for Bowen disease?

Fluorouracil cream or laser therapy

63
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What is the MC malignancy and 6th leading cause of cancer death in men, worldwide?

Prostate cancer

64
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What are RF for prostate cancer?

older age, FMH, obesity, HTN, agent orange exposure, persistent elevated testosterone, AA ethnicity

65
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How does prostate cancer present?

obstructive sx from growth of tumor, DRE → induration, nodules, or “normal” prostate, regional LAD if advanced

66
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What is the MC site of distant mets from prostate cancer?

Axial skeleton

67
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What is useful in detecting and staging prostatic cancer, and monitoring its response to tx?

PSA

68
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What is PSA?

glycoprotein produced only in the cytoplasm of benign and malignant prostate cells

69
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What PSA value is high?

> 4 ng/mL

70
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What PSA velocity level suggests potential cancer?

inc > 0.75 ng/ml

71
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What lab value can help differentiate elevated PSA d/t BPH vs cancer?

free PSA

*>25% less cancer risk; < 10% cancer risk ~50%

72
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Why might BUN and SrCr be elevated in a pt with prostatic cancer?

If pt has urinary retention or urethral obstruction

73
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What lab values will be elevated in prostate cancer if there are bony mets?

elevated alkaline phosphatase or hypercalcemia

74
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What imaging can detect suspicious areas for biopsy in prostate cancer?

Transrectal US-guided biopsy (TRUS)

75
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What imaging has a high degree of accuracy and reliability when detecting prostate cancer?

*preferred over TRUS

prostate MRI

76
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What is the gold standard for diagnosing prostate cancer?

prostate biopsy

77
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What is a PSA velocity test?

shows the changes in PSA over period of time (18-24 mos)

78
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What ages should PSA testing be done in?

55-69 yo

79
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When should men NOT be screened for prostate cancer?

> 70 yo

80
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What is the MC type of prostatic cancer?

Adenocarcinoma

*most arise in periphery

81
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What is the grading system used to determine prognosis in prostate cancer?

Gleason grading system

82
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What is Gleason grading system based on?

architecture and cellular arrangement rather than histological criteria

83
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What Gleason pattern:

cancerous prostate closely resembles normal prostate tissue, glands are small, well-formed, and closely packed; uniform

Pattern 1

84
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What Gleason pattern:

tissue still has well-formed glands, but they are larger and have more (stroma) tissue between them

Pattern 2

85
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What Gleason pattern:

tissue still has recognizable glands, but the cells are darker, some of these cells have left the glands and are beginning to invade surrounding tissue → distinctly infiltrative margins

Pattern 3

86
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What Gleason pattern:

tissue has few recognizable glands, many cells are invading surrounding tissue; irregular masses of neoplastic glands

Pattern 4

87
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What Gleason pattern:

tissue does not have recognizable glands, often just sheets of cells throughout the surrounding tissue; only occasional gland formation

Pattern 5

88
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What Gleason score is highly aggressive?

8-10

89
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What Gleason score is moderately aggressive?

7

90
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What Gleason score is mildly aggressive?

5-6

91
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What Gleason score is very low aggression?

2-4

92
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What grades are small and well-differentiated cancers and are usually confined w/in the prostate?

T1 & T2

93
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What grades of prostate cancer are large-volume or poorly differentiated cancers that are more commonly locally extensive or metastatic?

T3 & T4

94
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What stage of prostate cancer is ideal for radical prostatectomy?

T1 and T2

95
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What is removed in a radical prostatectomy?

Seminal vesicles, prostate, and ampulla of vas deferens

96
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How often should patients with localized prostate cancer have PSA checks? Biopsies?

PSA every 6 months, Bx every 1-3 years

97
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What hormone therapy can be given for localized prostate cancer?

anti-androgen first: Bicalutamide

GnRH: leuprolide

98
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If pts are at an inc risk of prostate cancer, when should they begin PSA screenings?

age 40

99
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How often should a PSA be checked?

every 2-4 yrs until 70 yo

100
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If PSA > 10ng/mL which is the likelihood they will have prostate cancer?

50-70%