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A). The clinical crown is the part of the tooth below the attached periodontal tissue. B). The clinical root is the part of the tooth below the base of the gingival sulcus or periodontal pocket.
Statement A is false and statement B is true.
A). The free gingival groove is a shallow linear groove that demarcates the free from the attached gingiva. B). In the absence of inflammation and pocket formation, the gingival groove runs somewhat parallel with and about 0.5 to 1.5 mm from the gingival margin.
Both statements are true.
A). Apical fibers extend from the root apex to adjacent surrounding bone to resist vertical forces. B). Interradicular fibers extend from the cementum in the middle of each root to adjacent alveolar bone to resist tipping of the tooth.
Statement A is true and statement B is false.
In the relationship of enamel and cementum at the cervical area there is _________ instances where they do not meet and there can be an area of exposed dentin.
10% to 40%
Gingival crevicular fluid is the:
Serumlike fluid that seeps from the connective tissue through the epithelial lining of the sulcus or pocket.
The gingival sulcus is the:
Crevice between the free gingiva and the tooth.
A). Floss cleft is created by using the floss correctly. B). Stillman's cleft is localized recession that may be in a V-shape that extends several millimeters toward the mucogingival junction.
Statement A is false and Statement B is true.
Suppuration is the formation of:
Pus.
What is a Class I embrasure?
The tip of the interdental papilla is apical to the contact point of adjacent teeth, but the interproximal CEJ is not visible.
A). Gingivitis occurs frequently in children, but is usually reversible without having permanent damage. B). Periodontal disease cannot occur in children.
Statement A is true and statement B is false.
The function of cementum is to:
Seal the tubules of the root dentin and provide attachment for the periodontal fiber groups.
Which of the following is not true about the mucogingival junction?
The anterior line is straight, but it is fairly scalloped posterior to the premolars.
A). Disease changes do no produce alterations in color, size, position, shape, consistency, surface texture, bleeding readiness, and exudate production. B). Chronic diseased tissue may be hard and fibrotic, with a normal pink color and normal or deep stippling.
Both statements are false.
A). Factors that influence color are vascular supply, thickness of epithelium, and degree of keratinization. B). Chronic inflammation appears as a dark red, bluish red, magenta, or deep blue.
Both statements are true.
A). The periodontium is the functional unit of tissues surrounding and supporting the tooth. B). It is made up of two parts: the gingiva, and the attachment apparatus.
Both statements are true.
Signs of health in the gingiva include all of the following, except:
Bleeding on probing.
A). The thickness of cementum is 50 to 200 µm. B). The thickness decreases with age.
Statement A is true and statement B is false.
Hyperkeratosis is a:
Leathery, hard, or nodular surface.
A). Junctional epithelium is a band of stratified squamous epithelium that is continuous with the sulcular epithelium and completely encircles the tooth. B). The junctional epithelium or attachment epithelium provides a seal at the base of the sulcus.
Both statements are true.
The following describes which gingival fiber group: from the cementum in the cervical region into the free gingiva to give support to the gingiva?
Dentogingival fibers
A). Dry each tooth or group of teeth with compressed air for aiding in the recognition of carious lesions. B). When conducting a visual examination, only look for translucency and no color changes.
Statement A is true and statement B is false.
A). Trauma to the face may involve fractured bones and teeth in addition to soft tissue injuries. B). The line of fracture may be horizontal, diagonal, or vertical.
Both statements are true.
All of the following are factors that influence a patient's response to a pulp test, except:
Opposite metal restorations.
Distoclusion (Class II) occurs when:
The buccal groove of the mandibular first permanent molar is distal to the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first permanent molar.
All of the following are variations in color and translucency, except:
Grayish-orange.
During your exam you noticed that the incisal edges of #8 and #9 occlude with the cervial third of the facial surfaces of #24 and #25; this would be identified as:
Deep overjet.
A). Cold testing may be accomplished with an air blast, cold drink, ice stick, ethyl chloride in a spray or on a cotton swab, or a carbon dioxide dry-ice stick. B). Heat testing is accomplished by warming a temporary stopping (gutta-percha) and applying it to a tooth dried with a cotton sponge.
Both statements are true.
A soft, progressive lesion of cementum and dentin that involves bacterial infection and invasion is known as:
Root caries.
A root surface lesion starts near the __________ after gingival recession has exposed the root surface.
Cementoenamel junction
All of the following are requirements for the development of a carious lesion, except:
Biofilm.
A primary canine relation that does not exhibit any primate is classified as:
Closed arches.
A). A bite registration is needed when occluding relations interfere with direct occlusion of study models. B). A bite registration relates the maxillary and mandibular models correctly.
Both statements are true.
A form of caries found in young children is known as:
Early childhood.
During an exam you notice that your patient's left mandibular second premolar (#20) is facial to the maxillary left second premolar (#13); this condition is called:
Crossbite.
Arrested root caries displays as:
Hard.
All of the following are predisposing factors for early childhood caries, except:
Nursing bottle filled with water.
Having a prominent maxilla and mandible positioned posterior to its normal relationship would be classified as:
Retrognathic.
A). Incipient lesions involve subsurface demineralization, which appears as a white area with no breakthrough to the enamel surface. B). Untreated incipient lesions are not visible by observation and are regular to gentle application of the side of an explorer tip or blunt probe.
Statement A is true and statement B is false.
A patient who has a Class III occlusion would most likely have a profile that is:
Prognathic.
A defect that occurs as a result of a disturbance in the formation of the organic enamel matrix is known as:
Enamel hypoplasia.
Dental caries involves an interaction among pathologic factors and protective factors. Pathological factors include all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Acidogenic bacteria
B. Subnormal saliva flow
C. Frequent eating and/or drinking of fermentable carbohydrates
D. Normal salivary flow
Normal salivary flow
Caries disease indicators include all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Teeth with frank cavitations or lesions that radiographically show penetration into dentin
B. Approximal radiographic lesions confined to the enamel only
C. Any restorations placed in the last 3 years
D. Visible heavy plaque biofilm on teeth
Visible heavy plaque biofilm on teeth
Caries protective factors include all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Uses fluoride toothpaste at least once daily.
B. Has orthodontic appliances.
C. Had fluoride varnish applied in the last 6 months.
D. Used xylitol gum/lozenges four times daily in the last 6 months.
E. Used calcium and phosphate supplements during the last 6 months.
Used xylitol gum/lozenges four times daily in the last 6 months.
If therapeutic interventions are not in place and disease progress has not been arrested, high caries risk for ages 6 years and older/adult is indicated by any one of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Teeth with frank cavitations or lesions that radiographically show penetration into dentin
B. Approximal radiographic lesions confined to the enamel only
C. Visual white spots on smooth surfaces
D. Inadequate saliva flow
Inadequate saliva flow
High caries risk factors for ages 0 to 5 years is indicated by any one of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Child sleeps with bottle or nurses ad lib.
B. Mother or primary caregiver has had active dental decay in the last 12 months.
C. Bottle contains fluids other than milk or water.
D. Child has had dental examination combined with oral hygiene instruction for caregiver.
E. Child has saliva reducing factors (e.g., medications for asthma or hyperactivity).
Child has had dental examination combined with oral hygiene instruction for caregiver.
Evidence-based therapy for a high caries risk individual is indicated by any one of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Fluoride toothpaste at least two times daily
B. Fluoride varnish two to three times annually
C. Xylitol for mothers and caregivers of 0 to 5-year-olds
D. Chlorhexidine once daily for 1 week each month for age 6 years through adult
E. Bottles with sugared fluids/juices
Bottles with sugared fluids/juices
A healthy periodontium consists of four physical units: gingiva, cementum, and which of the following?
A. Masticatory mucosa and cancellous bone
B. Free marginal gingiva and dentin
C. Alveolar process and trabecular bone
D. Periodontal ligament and alveolar process
Periodontal ligament and alveolar process
Which of the following describes the shape of the interdental papillae in health?
A. Blunted
B. Edematous
C. Knifelike
D. Punched out
C. Knifelike
All of the following are types of plaque-induced gingivitis except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Gingivitis modified by medications
B. Gingivitis modified by systemic factors
C. Gingivitis modified by viral infections
D. Gingivitis modified by malnutrition
C. Gingivitis modified by viral infections
Anatomic factors should be considered as contributing to the multifactorial cause of soft-tissue lesions such as gingival recession. Each of the following would be considered an anatomic factor except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Thin alveolar buccal plate
B. Frenal pull
C. Malpositioned tooth
D. Periodontitis
D. Periodontitis