Dentistry

Apical means "toward the _______________."

a. Root tip

b. Crown

c. Cheeks

d. Tongue

a.

When assessing and quantifying gingivitis, the modified Loe and Silness index is often referred to. According to this index, a gingival index 3 indicates:

a. Clinically healthy gingiva

b. Mild gingivitis with slight reddening and swelling of the gingival margins

c. Moderate gingivitis, with gentle probing resulting in bleeding

d. Severe gingivitis, in which there is spontaneous hemorrhage and/or ulceration of the gingival margin

c.

Hypodontia is defined as:

a. Congenital absence of many, but not all, teeth

b. Total absence of teeth

c. Absence of only a few teeth

d. Inflammation of the mouth

c.

Abbreviations are commonly used in veterinary practice, and some abbreviations are exclusive to dental terminology. Which abbreviation best aligns with the complicated crown fracture?

a. CCF

b. UCF

c. UCRF

d. CCRF

a.

When grading furcation involvement, which of the following descriptions is terms Grade 3?

a. No furcation involvement

b. The furcation can be felt with the probe/explorer, but horizontal tissue destruction is <1/3 of the horizontal width

c. The furcation can be explored, but the probe cannot pass through it

d. The probe can be passed through the furcation from buccal to palatal/lingual

d.

When grading tooth mobility, which of the following grades corresponds to a Grade 3?

a. No mobility

b. Horizontal movement <1 mm

c. Horizontal movement >1 mm

d. Vertical and horizontal movement

d.

Which teeth on each side of the dog's mouth have three roots?

a. Maxillary: third and fourth premolars and first molar

b. Maxillary: fourth premolars and first and second molars

c. Mandibular: fourth premolars and first and second molars

d. Mandibular and Maxillary: fourth premolars and first and second molars

b.

At what age do the permanent canine and premolar teeth in dogs generally erupt?

a. 3-5 months

b. 4-6 months

c. 5-7 months

d. 6-8 months

b.

Using the Triadan system, the proper way to describe a dog's first maxillary left permanent premolar is:

a. 205

b. 105

c. 306

d. 502

a.

Using the Triadan system, the proper way to describe a cat's first mandibular right molar is:

a. 407

b. 409

c. 109

d. 909

b.

The pulp canal of a tooth contains:

a. Nerves

b. Blood vessels

c. Connective tissue and blood vessels

d. Blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissues

d.

As part of normal tooth development, what part of the tooth widens?

a. Enamel

b. Pulp

c. Dentin

d. Gingiva

c.

Which of the following statements regarding enamel is true?

a. Contains living tissue

b. Covers the tooth crown and root

c. Continues production by the ameloblasts after eruption

d. Is relatively nonporous and impervious

d.

Dentin is covered by:

a. Enamel and bone

b. Bone and pulp

c. Cementum and enamel

d. Pulp and cementum

c.

Normal scissor occulsion occurs when the maxillary fourth premolars occlude:

a. Level with the mandibular fourth premolar

b. Buccally to the mandibular first molar

c. Buccally to the mandibular fourth premolar

d. Lingually to the mandibular first molar

b.

Which of the following correctly describes the adult feline dental formula?

a. 2 x {I 2/1: C 0/0: P 3/2: M 3/3}

b. 2 x {I 3/3: C 1/1: P 4/4: M 2/3}

c. 2 x {I 3/3: C 1/1: P 3/2: M 1/1}

d. 2 x {I 3/3: C 1/1: P 3/3}

c.

The carnassial teeth in dogs are:

a. 4P4 and 1M1

b. 4P4 and 4P4

c. 1M1 and 1M1

d. 1C1 and 1C1

a.

The free or marginal gingiva:

a. Occupies the space between the teeth

b. Is the most apical portion of the gingiva

c. Forms the gingival sulcus around the tooth

d. Is tightly bound to the cementum

c.

The periodontium includes the periodontal ligament and all of the following except:

a. Gingiva

b. Cementum

c. Alveolar bone

d. Enamel

d.

A bulldog would be described as having what type of head shape?

a. Brachycephalic

b. Dolicocephalic

c. Mesaticephalic/mesocephalic

d. Prognacephalic

a.

In veterinary dentistry, chlorhexidine solutions are used because they:

a. Prevent cementoenamel erosion

b. Have antibacterial properties

c. Remove enamel stains and whiten teeth

d. Are used to treat gingival hyperplasia in brachycephalic breeds

b.

When using hand instruments to clean teeth:

a. Use a modified pen grasp with a back-and-forth scraping motion.

b. Use a modified pen grasp with overlapping pull strokes that are directed away from the gingival margin.

c. Use the sickle scaler for sub gingival curettage.

d. The curette is best used supragingivally.

b.

Pocket depth is measured from the:

a. Cementoenamel junction to the bottom of the pocket

b. Current free gingival margin to the bottom of the gingival sulcus

c. Cementoenamel junction to the current free gingival margin and then adding 1-2 mm

d. Cementoenamel junction to the apical extent of the defect

b.

Between patients, it is best to maintain instruments in which following order:

a. Use, sharpen, wash, and sterilize

b. Use, wash, sterilize, and sharpen

c. Use, wash, sharpen, and sterilize

d. Wash, sterilize, usem, and sharpen

c.

When performing a dental prophylaxis, minimal safety equipment includes:

a. Gloves only

b. Gloves and mask only

c. Safety glasses only

d. Safety glasses, mask, and gloves

d.

You have an instrument in your hand that has two sharp sides, a rounded back, and a rounded point. Which instrument are you holding?

a. Sickle scaler

b. Morse scaler

c. Universal curette

d. Sickle curette

c.

When polishing teeth using an air-driven unit, at what speed should the hand piece be set?

a. High speed

b. Low speed

c. Either high or low is acceptable

d. Finishing speed

b.

The term that best describes a dog with an abnormally short mandible is:

a. Prognathism

b. Brachygnathism

c. Mesaticephalic

d. Dolichocephalic

b.

A malocclusion where one side of the mandible or maxilla is disproportionate to its other side is known as:

a. Posterior crossbite

b. Base-narrow mandibular canines

c. Wry mouth

d. Rostral crossbite

c.

A malocclusion in which the upper fourth premolar lies palatal to the first molars is known as:

a. Posterior crossbite

b. Base-narrow mandibular canines

c. Wry mouth

d. Rostral crossbite

a.

A malocclusion in which the canines erupt in an overly upright position, or the mandible is narrowed, is known as:

a. Posterior crossbite

b. Base-narrow mandibular canines

c. Wry mouth

d. Rostral crossbite

b.

A malocclusion in which one or more of the upper incisor teeth are caudal to the lower incisors is known as:

a. Posterior crossbite

b. Base-narrow mandibular canines

c. Wry mouth

d. Rostral crossbite

d.

To prep a patient for surgical tooth extraction, which of the following should occur?

a. No prep is needed. It is best to extract, and then to clean the remaining teeth (this is a more efficient process, yielding a shorter anesthesia time)

b. Rinse the mouth with chlorhexidine, then extract

c. Scale, polish, then extract

d. Scale, polish, rinse with chlorhexidine, then extract

d.

Dry socket is more likely to occur when one:

a. Ensures there is an increased blood supply to the area

b. Practices good surgical technique

c. Allows a blood clot to form so that fibroblasts are formed

d. Overirrigates the tooth socket so that no clot can form

d.

Gingivoplasty is the:

a. Addition of more gingiva to the site

b. Binding of the loose teeth together to stabilize them during a healing process

c. Removal of hyper plastic gingival tissue

d. Removal of a portion of the tooth structure

c.

To protect the pulp tissue of teeth from thermal damage during ultrasonic scaling, one should:

a. Use constant irrigation

b. Change tips frequently

c. Use slow rotational speed

d. Use appropriate amounts of paste

a.

Another term for neck lesions often seen on feline teeth is:

a. Peripheral odontogenic fibroma

b. Stomatitis

c. Feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions

d. Enamel fracture

c.

The most common dental procedure performed on a horse is:

a. Quidding

b. Curettage

c. Scaling

d. Floating

d.

Stomatitis is defined as:

a. Bad breath that is evident when dental work must be completed

b. Inflammation of the mouth's soft tissue

c. Resorption of hard dental tissues by odontoblasts

d. Inflammation and infection of some or all of the tooth's supportive tissues

b.

A client would like to know what chew toy would be safest for her dog's teeth. You suggest that she is best to give "Fido" a:

a. Dried cow hoof

b. Nylon rope toy

c. Dense rubber exerciser

d. Large knucklebone

c.

When taking radiographs of the canine tooth in a large breed dog, what size of dental film should be used to ensure that the whole tooth is included?

a. 0

b. 2

c. 4

d. 8" x 10" screen film

c.

Dental film should be placed in the mouth with the dimple facing:

a. Up and pointing rostrally

b. Up and pointing caudally

c. Down and pointing rostrally

d. Down and pointing caudally

a.

The flap side of the dental film should face:

a. Any direction, because it does not matter

b. Toward the tube head

c. Away from the tube head

d. The caudal side of the animal

c.

The bisecting angle principles states that the plane of an x-ray beam should be 90 degrees to the:

a. Long axis of the tooth

b. Plane of the film

c. Imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the tooth's long axis and the film plane

d. Imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the animal's head and the film plane

c.

You are looking at your dental radiograph and notice that the tooth is elongated. This happened because the beam was perpendicular to the:

a. Film

b. Tooth

c. Bisecting angle

d. Wrong tooth

b.

Abbreviations are commonly used in veterinary practice, and some abbreviations are exclusive to dental terminology. Which abbreviations best aligns with a complicated crown and root fracture?

a. CCF

b. UCF

c. UCRF

d. CCRF

d.

A scaler is used to:

a. Check the tooth's root surface for any irregularities

b. Measure the depth of gingival recession

c. Scale large amounts of calculus from the tooth surface

d. Scale calculus from the tooth surface located in the gingival sulcus

c.

What mineralized tissue covers the root of the tooth?

a. Calculus

b. Enamel

c. Cementum

d. Dentin

c.

The nerves and blood vessels of a tooth are located in the:

a. Sulcus

b. Pulp cavity

c. Marrow cavity

d. Calculus

b.

When scaling gross calculus from the teeth:

a. Hold the scaler using a modified pen grasp

b. Hold the scaler using a modified screwdriver grasp

c. Use long controlled strokes toward the gums

d. Hold the curette using a modified pen grasp

a.

Which of the following statements is true about ultrasonic scaling?

a. Ultrasonic scaling is the only method to clean a tooth surface fully

b. Ultrasonic scaling causes thermal damage to the tooth if the tip is kept on a tooth for <5 seconds

c. The ultrasonic scaler works by spraying the tooth with water to wash the tooth clean

d. The purpose of the water spray on an ultrasonic scaler is to cool the tip of the instrument and cool the tooth to prevent pulp damage

d.

The following statements are all true except:

a. Sulcus depth is measured using a probe

b. A sulcus depth _< 3mm is normal in a cat

c. A sulcus depth >3mm indicates periodontal disease

d. The probe is inserted gently into the gingival sulcus parallel to the root of the tooth

b.

All of the following are complications that may result from extraction, except:

a. Hemorrhage

b. Jaw fracture

c. Stomatitis

d. Oronasal fistula

c.

An older dog with dental disease is presented to the clinic with a draining tract below his right eye. What is the most likely cause?

a. Right-sided maxillary carnassial tooth root abscess

b. Left-sided maxillary carnassial tooth root abscess

c. Right-sided mandibular carnassial tooth root abscess

d. Maxillary incisor tooth root abscess

a.

What members of the veterinary staff make up the oral health care team?

a. The veterinarian

b. The veterinary technician

c. The receptionist

d. All of the above

d.

Why would thermal bone injury be a complication of tooth extraction?

a. The bur will overheat and damage the soft tissue and bone

b. Thermal injury is not a concern, as you are removing the tooth anyway

c. Tooth elevators cause excessive heat, which could injure the soft tissue around the tooth that is being extracted

d. Tooth extractors cause excessive heat, which could injure the remaining teeth

a.

Brachygnathism is a genetic defect best characterized as:

a. A maxilla that is longer than the mandible

b. A mandible that is longer than the maxilla

c. A lack of incisors

d. Polydontia

a.

Prognathism is a normal condition in brachycephalic breeds but is considered a genetic defect in other breeds. It is best characterized as:

a. A mandible that is longer than the maxilla

b. A maxilla that is longer than the mandible

c. One side of the head being longer than the other

d. An overly long soft palate

a.

Malocclusion can lead to dental disease for all of the following reasons except:

a. Soft-tissue trauma from teeth that are abnormally positioned

b. Accelerated development of periodontal disease resulting from the lack of normal wear and the normal flushing of teeth with saliva

c. Abnormal wear of teeth resulting from malposition leading to fracture and pulp exposure

d. Presence of resorptive lesions leading to the destruction of teeth.

d.

Which of the following teeth are not normally present in the adult cat?

a. P1 and P1, and P2

b. P(1) and p{1}, and P2

c. I(2) and I{1}

d. PM3 and PM4

a.

The furcation is best described as:

a. The area between the cementum and the enamel

b. The space between two roots where they meet the crown

c. The space between the root and the alveolar bone

d. The space between two teeth

b.

What is the most common clinical sign of feline stomatitis?

a. Fractured crowns and/or granulation tissue at the cementoenamel junction

b. Thickening or bulging of the alveolar bone of the maxillary canine teeth

c. Erythematous, ulcerative, proliferative lesions affecting the gingiva, glossopalatine arches, tongue, lips, buccal mucosa, and/or hard palate

d. Granular, orange-colored ulcerations found on the upper lips adjacent to the philtrum

c.

An oronasal fistula can often occur secondary to:

a. Abscess of the mandibular canine tooth

b. Incisor root abscess

c. Abscess of the maxillary canine tooth

d. Retained deciduous incisors

c.

Which of the following statements about canine toy breeds is true?

a. Chronic impaction of incisor teeth with hair and debris often results in a chronic osteomyelitis

b. Malocclusions are rare in toy breeds in comparison with giant-breed dogs

c. Enamel hypoplasia is a common finding in toy breeds

d. Prognathism is considered a genetic defect in brachycephalic breeds

a.

A biopsy report confirms that an oral mass is an acanthomatous ameloblastoma or an acanthomatous epulis. Which of the following statements is true regarding this growth?

a. It is a nonmalignant tumor

b. It is a malignant tumor

c. It is very likely to metastasize

d. It is related to the presence of a malocclusion

a.

While performing a routine prophylactic dentistry, the veterinary technician notes a large, red raised lesion on the lip of her feline patient. The client noted that the lesion "comes and goes." What is a reasonable differential for this lesion?

a. Feline resorptive lesion

b. Trauma-related lesion

c. Eosinophilic ulcer

d. Tumor

c.

Feline cervical line lesion/feline neck lesions/feline resorptive lesions are of great concern to veterinarians. Which of the following statements regarding these lesions is false?

a. Feline resorptive lesions are aggressive dental caries that result in resorption of roots and subsequent tooth loss

b. Feline resorptive lesions often present with a raspberry seed-type sign at the base of the tooth where it meets the gingival margin

c. Feline resorptive lesions are effectively managed with steroid administration

d. It is common to find more than one feline cervical line lesion in the oral cavity

c.

Which of the following statements about the eruption of permanent teeth is false?

a. The permanent upper canines erupt mesial to the deciduous canines

b. The permanent lower canines erupt buccal to the deciduous canines

c. The permanent incisors erupt distal to the deciduous incisors

d. The permanent canine teeth erupt at 5 to 6 months of age in the dog

b.

The pulp of the tooth has which of the following functions?

a. Anchors the root to the alveolar bone with a fibrous ligament

b. Provides the crown with a protective, hard surface

c. Contains blood vessels and nerves that provide nutrition and sensation to the tooth

d. Makes up the bulk of the tooth structure

c.

When the pulp cavity of a tooth is exposed, what is(are) the appropriate procedure(s) that should be performed?

a. Tooth extractions or root canal therapy

b. No procedure is required

c. Crown amputation with intentional root retention

d. Prophylactic dentistry to reduce tartar and plaque buildup on the tooth

a.

In patients with severe chronic periodontal disease, medication can be administered before a dental cleaning is performed. What is the most common type of medication chosen for these animals?

a. Corticosteroids

b. Antimicrobials

c. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories

d. Immunostiumulants

b.

From birth to 9 months of age, what condition is not present in the oral cavity?

a. Occurrence of oral masses

b. Missing teeth

c. Extra teeth

d. Abnormal jaw length

a.

Perioceutics refer to which of the following?

a. Procedure to restore the periodontal ligament

b. Application of time-release antibiotics directly within the oral cavity

c. Use of antibiotics before the dental procedure

d. Procedure to cap the pulp cavity of the tooth

b.

The bisecting angle technique is a method for radiographing the oral cavity. The description that adequately describes this technique is:

a. The central radiation beam is directed perpendicular to the line that bisects the angle formed by the film and the long axis of the tooth

b. The central radiation beam is directed parallel to the line that bisects the angle formed by the film and the perpendicular axis of the tooth

c. The central radiation beam is directed perpendicular to the tooth root

d. The central radiation beam is directed perpendicular to the film or sensor

a.

A curette is used to:

a. Check the tooth's surface for any irregularities

b. Measure the depth of gingival recession

c. Scale large amounts of calculus from the tooth's surface

d. Scale calculus from the tooth surface located in the gingival sulcus

d.

Which of the following statements is false when performing an ultrasonic scaling during routine dental prophylaxis?

a. The ultrasonic scaler should not be on the tooth for longer than 10-15 seconds at a time to prevent thermal damage to the pulp cavity

b. The ultrasonic scaler should be grasped like a pencil

c. The side of the instrument should be used against the tooth rather than the tip

d. The ultrasonic scaler can be used for supra gingival scaling only

d.

Which of the following statements is false regarding patient safety during dentistry?

a. Provide thermal support to the patient during the dental procedure as hypothermia can result, especially in cats and smaller dogs

b. The endotracheal tube should be uncuffed so that the tube can be easily manipulated when performing dentistry

c. Large-breed dogs should be rolled with their legs under to prevent a gastric dilatation volvulus crisis

d. One must monitor the patient to ensure that fluids and debris from the dentistry do not gain access to the trachea

b.

A dog exposed to distemper as a puppy may develop which of the following oral conditions?

a. Adontia

b. Polydontia

c. Enamel hypoplasia

d. Enamel straining

c.

Sometimes a 0.12%-chlorhexidine solution is sprayed in the patient's mouth before beginning dental prophylaxis. What is the benefit of this activity?

a. Sterilizes the patient's mouth before the procedure

b. Reduces the bacterial load in the mouth to reduce exposure to the technician who performs the procedure

c. Substitutes from prophylactic antibiotic therapy

d. Provides topical anesthetic activity

b.

Which of the following statements is false with respect to polishing an animal's teeth following scaling?

a. The polishing paste used should be of medium or fine granularity

b. Polishing acts to remove microscopic grooves left by the scaling process

c. The polishing instrument should be moved from tooth to tooth to prevent thermal damage to the pulp

d. Polishing is a means for removing stubborn plaque that occurs below the gum line

d.

The Triadan system is a:

a. Tooth identification system designed to aid in dental charting

b. Complete system that includes an ultrasonic scaler and polisher

c. Method for performing radiographs of molars

d. Complete home care dental system for use by clients

a.

Oligodontia is defined as:

a. Congenital absence of many, but not all, teeth

b. Total absence of teeth

c. Absence of only a few teeth

d. Difficulty eating

a.

When comparing the size of the upper canine tooth, how much of the the tooth is exposed versus that below the gumline?

a. 1/3 of the tooth is exposed

b. 1/2 of the tooth is exposed

c. 2/3 of the tooth is exposed

d. 3/4 of the tooth is exposed

a.

The upper fourth premolar communicates with what sinus?

a. Mandibular

b. Occipital

c. Maxillary

d. Orbital

c.

The crown of a tooth is defined as:

a. That portion above the gum line and covered by enamel

b. The most terminal portion of the root

c. That portion below the gum line

d. The layer of bony tissue that attaches to the alveolar bone

a.

The range for acceptable gingival sulcus measurements in cats is:

a. 1-3 mm

b. 0.5-1 mm

c. 1.5-4.5 mm

d. 0.005-0.007 mm

b.

How does tracheal rupture occur in feline dental patients?

a. Packing the pharyngeal area too tightly

b. Using a cuffed endotracheal tube

c. Overinflation of the endotracheal tube cuff

d. Disconnecting the breathing circuit before turning the patient

c.

What stage of periodontal disease shows no change to the alveolar height, but includes mild gingival inflammation?

a. Stage I

b. Stage II

c. Stage III

d. Stage IV

a.

When assessing and quantifying gingivitis, the modified Loe and Silness index is often referred to. According to this index, a gingival index 0 indicates:

a. Clinically healthy gingiva

b. Mild gingivitis with slight reddening and swelling of the gingival margins

c. Moderate gingivitis, with gentle probing resulting in bleeding

d. Severe gingivitis, in which there is spontaneous hemorrhage and/or ulceration of the gingival margin

a.

What drug should not be given to pregnant dogs because it may cause discoloration of the puppies' teeth?

a. Amoxicillin

b. Tetracycline

c. Chloramphenicol

d. Penicillin

b.

The occlusal surface is defined as the:

a. Surface facing the hard palate

b. Surface nearer the cheek

c. Chewing surface of the tooth

d. Surface nearer the tongue

c.

The normal adult canine mouth has how many permanent teeth?

a. 40

b. 42

c. 48

d. 52

b.

When grading tooth mobility, which of the following grades corresponds to a Grade 2?

a. No mobility

b. Horizontal movement of <1 mm

c. Horizontal movement >1 mm

d. Vertical and horizontal movement

c.

Which of the following is a complication that might develop if a curette is used to improperly?

a. Etched tooth enamel

b. Torn epithelial attachment

c. Overheated tooth

d. Bitten technician

b.

Which tooth has three roots?

a. Upper canine

b. Lower first premolar

c. Lower first molar

d. Upper fourth premolar

d.

Which statement concerning the polishing aspect of dental prophylaxis is the least accurate?

a. A slow speed should be used

b. Adequate prophy paste is needed for lubrication and polishing

c. The polisher should remain on the tooth for as long as is needed to polish the tooth

d. If teeth are not polished, the rough enamel will promote bacterial plaque formation

c.

What term identifies the wearing away of enamel by tooth-against-tooth contact during mastication?

a. Plaque

b. Attrition

c. Calculus

d. Abrasion

b.

When grading furcation involvement, which of the following descriptions would be termed Grade I?

a. No furcation involvement

b. The furcation can be felt with the probe/explorer, but horizontal tissue destruction is <1/3 of the horizontal width

c. The furcation can be explored, but the probe cannot pass through it

d. The probe can be passed through the furcation from buccal to palatal/lingual

b.

What term identifies the loss of tooth structure by an outside cause?

a. Plaque

b. Attrition

c. Calculus

d. Abrasion

d.

The thin film covering a tooth that is composed of bacteria, saliva, and food particles is:

a. Plaque

b. Attrition

c. Calculus

d. Abrasion

a.